Q&A Hero

Q: Bronwyn is interested in using non-medical techniques to assist her in dealing with pain during childbirth. Based on the text and class discussion, what are the two best options available to her and why?

Q: Naia's doctor has told her that because her baby has not turned, he would like to perform a cesarean delivery. What can Naia expect to happen? A cesarean delivery is a surgical procedure in which the baby is removed from the mother's uterus through an incision made in her abdomen. Normally, the baby's head comes through the vagina first. But if the baby is in a breech position, the baby's buttocks are the first part to emerge from the vagina. In one of every 25 deliveries, the baby's head is still in the uterus when the rest of the body is out. Breech births can cause respiratory problems. As a result, if the baby is in a breech position, a cesarean delivery is usually performed.

Q: Name three different types of drugs that are used during labor. Illustrate your answer with examples. Three basic kinds of drugs that are used during labor are analgesia, anesthesia, and oxytocin/pitocin. Analgesics are used to relieve pain. Tranquilizers, barbiturates, and narcotics can all be used to relieve pain. Anesthesia is used in late first-stage labor and the expulsion of the baby to block sensation in an area of the body, or to block consciousness. An epidural block is a regional anesthetic commonly used in childbirth. Oxytocin is a synthetic hormone that is used to stimulate contractions; pitocin is the most widely used oxytocin.

Q: Xiomara is considering hiring a doula to help with childbirth. What is a doula and how is they different from midwives? Doula is a Greek word that means "a woman who helps". A doula is a caregiver who provides continuous physical, emotional, and educational support for the mother before, during, and after childbirth. Doulas remain with the parents throughout labor, assessing and responding to the mother's needs. In the United States, most doulas work as independent providers hired by the expectant parents. Doulas typically function as part of a "birthing team", serving as an adjunct to the midwife or the hospital's obstetric staff.

Q: What is AIDS? Describe the modes and effects of transmission from the mother to the child. AIDS is a sexually transmitted infection that is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which destroys the body's immune system. A mother can infect her offspring with HIV/AIDS in three ways: (1) during gestation across the placenta, (2) during delivery through contact with maternal blood or fluids, and (3) postpartum (after birth) through breast feeding. The transmission of AIDS through breast feeding is especially a problem in many developing countries. Babies born to HIV-infected mothers can be (1) infected and symptomatic (show HIV symptoms), (2) infected but asymptomatic (not show HIV symptoms), or (3) not infected at all. An infant who is infected and asymptomatic may still develop HIV symptoms up until 15 months of age.

Q: Teji's doctor is testing her Rh factor to determine compatibility. Based on the test results, the mother and fetus are incompatible. Give a brief description of Rh incompatibility and discuss the dangers associated with it. Incompatibility between the mother's and father's blood type poses a risk to prenatal development. If a pregnant woman is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive, the fetus may be Rh-positive. If the fetus' blood is Rh-positive and the mother's is Rh-negative, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies that will attack the fetus. This can result in any number of problems, including miscarriage or stillbirth, anemia, jaundice, heart defects, brain damage, or death soon after birth.

Q: Describe the effect of alcohol on pregnancy. What is FAS? What are some of the problems children with FAS face? Heavy drinking by pregnant women can be devastating to their offspring. Fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASD) are a cluster of abnormalities and problems that appear in the offspring of mothers who drink alcohol heavily during pregnancy. The abnormalities include facial deformities and defective limbs, face, and heart. Most children with FASD have learning problems, and many are below average in intelligenceincluding some that are mentally retarded.

Q: Define a teratogen and illustrate your answer with an example. List at least six teratogens one should avoid during pregnancy.

Q: Describe the three main periods of prenatal development, and the major steps for developing into a person for each stage. Typical prenatal development can be divided into three periods: germinal, embryonic, and fetal. The first period is called the germinal period. During this time, the zygote is created, cell division takes place, and the zygote attaches to the uterine wall. The second period is called the embryonic period. During this time, the rate of cell differentiation intensifies, support systems for the cells form, and organs appear. The embryo is composed of the endoderm, ectoderm, and mesoderm. Life-support systems form. These include the placenta, the umbilical cord, and the amnion. Organogenesis (the process of organ formation) takes place. The third period is called the fetal period. During this time, dramatic growth and development occur. The mother can feel leg movements. The sex of the baby can be determined.

Q: Identify the formation of a close connection, especially a physical bond, between parents and their newborn in the period shortly after birth.

Q: Tadi lives in a community where women generally keep both preterm and postterm babies close for skin to skin contact. This is called _____ in the U.S.

Q: Identify the test that is given to the neonate within 24 to 36 hours after birth. It is designed to assess a newborn's neurological development and reflexes.

Q: Veronica is one week from her due date when her doctor tells her that the baby hasn't turned yet, meaning he is in the _____.

Q: Justus and Rochelle are taking prenatal classes that involve a special breathing technique to control pushing in the final stages of labor, and a detailed anatomy and physiology course. On which obstetrician's work is this method based?

Q: Sergios wife is pregnant, but he smokes all the time inside the house. Cigarette smoke has been known to cause birth defects and negatively alter cognitive and behavioral outcomes in unborn babies. Sergio is exposing his child to which type of agent?

Q: Identify the process that takes place at approximately 6 to 24 weeks after conception, involves cells moving from their point of origin to their appropriate locations and creating the different levels, structures, and regions of the brain. Neuronal migration

Q: Identify the life-support systems of the embryo, where a group of disk-shaped tissues and small blood vessels from the mother and the offspring intertwine. Placenta

Q: Identify the inner layer of cells that develops during the germinal period. These cells later develop into the embryo.

Q: Identify the period of prenatal development that occurs two to eight weeks after conception. During this time, the rate of cell differentiation intensifies, support systems for the cells form, and organs appear.

Q: Michael and Jessica are having their first child, and have told their physician they would like a rooming-in arrangement. This means that: A. Michael can stay overnight in Jessica's room. B. Jessica's hospital room will be more like a nursery. C. Jessica's baby will stay in her room. D.

Q: Mariah has given birth to a baby girl. Even one month after delivery, she is experiencing very strong feelings of sadness and anxiety. She is so morose that she is having trouble coping with daily tasks. Mariah is most likely suffering from: A. posttraumatic stress disorder. B. postpartum blues. C. paranoid schizophrenia. D.

Q: When the _____ is delivered, estrogen and progesterone levels drop steeply and remain low until the ovaries start producing hormones again. A. baby B. placenta C. embryo D.

Q: Two increasingly used interventions in the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) are _____ and _____. A. bottle feeding; music therapy B. massage therapy; kangaroo care C. breast feeding; antenatal steroids D.

Q: What does the result of a recent Norwegian study about preterm infants indicate? A. The earlier preterm infants are born, the more likely they will drop out of school. B. The earlier preterm infants are born, the more susceptible they are to congenital diseases. C. The earlier preterm infants are born, the lesser are the chances of survival beyond two years. D.

Q: Approximately _____ percent of all low birth weight children are enrolled in special education programs. A. 12 B. 22 C. 50 D.

Q: Children born low in birth weight are more likely than their normal birth weight counterparts to develop all of the following, EXCEPT: A. muscular dystrophy. B. a learning disability. C. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. D.

Q: Sidra has a baby that was born at 27 weeks. Her baby is considered a(n): A. very preterm infant. B. moderately preterm infant. C. mildly preterm infant. D.

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the different conditions that pose threats for newborns? A. Small for date infants weigh less than 5 pounds at birth. B. Low birth weight babies weigh between 6 to 7 pounds. C. Small for date infants have below normal weight when the length of the pregnancy is considered. D.

Q: Juan-Carlos was born full term, but was underweight for his gestational age. He would be considered: A. preterm. B. premature. C. normal. D.

Q: Malorie was born during her mother's 32nd week of pregnancy. Malorie would be termed a(n) _____ baby. A. preterm B. premature C. average D.

Q: Dakota was born after 40 weeks of gestation and weighed 4 pounds. Dakota would be considered: A. a preterm baby. B. a premature baby. C. to have a low birth weight. D.

Q: T. Berry Brazelton, along with Barry Lester and Edward Tronick, developed the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavioral Scale (NNNS) specifically to assess: A. a normal, healthy infant. B. the "at-risk" infant. C. the newborn's ability to cope with the new environment. D.

Q: What does a very low score on the Brazelton National Behavioral Assessment Scale (NBAS) indicate? A. Neurological problems B. Heart problems C. High pressure D.

Q: The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale is typically performed within _____ after birth. A. two to five hours B. 24 to 36 hours C. two to five days D.

Q: A pediatrician is testing baby Rosaria. The doctor assesses Rosaria's neurological development, reflexes, and reactions to people and objects. Rosaria's pediatrician is using the: A. Apgar Scale. B. Infant IQ test. C. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale. D.

Q: Which of the following is the Apgar Scale especially good at determining? A. The severity of limb deformities of the newborn B. Identifying the newborn's susceptibility to common postnatal complications C. The newborn's ability to respond to stress of delivery D.

Q: Which of the following is evaluated by the Apgar Scale? A. Newborn's kidney function B. Newborn's birth weight C. Newborn's height D.

Q: In assessing the health of newborns, the _____ identifies high-risk infants who need resuscitation. A. Rogers-Randall Assessment B. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale C. Wechsler Infant Intelligence Scale D.

Q: The Apgar Scale is a method used to assess the health of newborns. A score of 3 would indicate: A. that the newborn's condition is good. B. that there may be some developmental difficulties. C. an emergency because the baby's survival is in doubt. D.

Q: A total score of _____ on the Apgar Scale indicates that the newborn's condition is good. A. 4 B. 1 to 3 C. 7 to 10 D.

Q: What is the rationale for the practice of a waterbirth? A. Water pressure reduces the strain of contractions. B. It creates an environment similar to that inside the amniotic sac. C. Getting into water speeds up the labor process. D.

Q: Pilar is using non-medical techniques for pain management during labor; she has someone insert fine needles into specific locations of her body. She is most likely using _____. A. acupressure B. acupuncture C. aromatherapy D.

Q: Brenda's baby was born just minutes ago, and the doctor is checking the baby's heart rate, respiratory effort, body color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone. Brenda's baby is being tested with the: A. Apgar Scale. B. preterm outcome test. C. Rogers-Randall Assessment. D.

Q: Which of the following is a threat to the infant caused by the breech position? A. Bone malformation B. Down syndrome C. Respiratory problems D.

Q: Which of the following techniques is used to overcome the threat of problems related to the breech position during delivery? A. Massage therapy B. Music therapy C. Acupuncture D.

Q: _____ position refers to the baby's position in the uterus that causes the buttocks to be the first part to emerge from the vagina. A. Fetal B. Breech C. Asynclitic D.

Q: Which of the following is a conclusion drawn by the current proponents of prepared childbirth methods? A. Midwifery is the most important support required during pregnancy and childbirth. B. When information and support are provided, women know how to give birth. C. Medication should be totally avoided during pregnancy. D.

Q: French obstetrician Ferdinand Lamaze developed a method similar to natural childbirth that is known as _____. A. induced childbirth B. prepared childbirth C. simulated delivery D.

Q: Gisela is having her first baby and has received a drug that will numb the entire lower area of her body during labor. Gisela has been given a(n) _____. A. epidural block B. oxytocin C. analgesic D.

Q: Which of the following is true of the stages of childbirth? A. The first stage terminates when the baby completely emerges from the mother's body. B. Uterine contractions start in the final stage of the birth process. C. The first stage is the longest of the three birth stages. D.

Q: _____ is the shortest of the three birth stages. A. Involution B. Afterbirth C. Implantation D.

Q: Naveen is entering the third stage of childbirth, also known as the _____ stage. A. postpartum B. umbilical procedure C. afterbirth D.

Q: Which of the following statements is TRUE about the third stage of the birth process? A. The placenta, umbilical cord, and other membranes are detached and expelled. B. It is the longest stage in the birth process. C. It involves complete delivery of the child. D.

Q: The second stage of childbirth begins with the _____ and ends with the _____. A. emergence of the child's head; delivery of the placenta B. opening of the cervix; delivery of the child out of the mother C. emergence of the child's head; delivery of the child out of the mother D.

Q: By the end of the _____, contractions dilate the cervix to an opening of about 10 centimeters (4 inches), so that the baby can move from the uterus to the birth canal. A. second trimester B. second birth stage C. third trimester D.

Q: The _____ stage is the longest stage of the birth process. A. fourth B. second C. first D.

Q: The birth process occurs in _____ stages. A. three B. two C. four D.

Q: Identify the prenatal care program that consists of approximately 50 home visits from the prenatal period through two years of age. A. The Nurse Family Partnership B. Centering Pregnancy C. Maxx Family Life D.

Q: According to a recent study, which of the following observations was made about women who participated in Centering Pregnancy care? A. More women felt secure without the aid of midwives. B. Many women reported feeling more stressed after a session. C. Women had higher breast-feeding rates. D.

Q: _____ replaces traditional 15-minute physician visits with 90-minute peer group support settings and self-examination led by a physician or certified nurse-midwife. A. Centering Pregnancy B. The use of doulas C. The use of professional midwives D.

Q: Centering Pregnancy is an innovative prenatal care program provides complete prenatal care: A. in individual homes. B. in rural clinical settings. C. in group settings. D.

Q: Julianne lost her baby early in her pregnancy. Which of the following paternal factors could have possibly led to this outcome? A. Her partner was overweight. B. Her partner was a heavy smoker, even during her pregnancy. C. Her partner is deficient in vitamin C. D.

Q: Which maternal age group has increased risk of low birth weight, preterm delivery, and fetal death? A. Eighteen years or younger B. Between 18 and 25 years C. Between 19 and 30 years D.

Q: Before the delivery of her baby, Karen experiences several traumatic life changes. She separates from her husband, discovers that her mother is seriously ill, and begins a more stressful job. Will Karen's baby be significantly affected by all the stress in Karen's life? A. Yes, the baby will develop good coping skills. B. No, fetuses are not significantly affected by the mother's emotional stress. C. No, any effects on the fetus will be temporary and will not produce lasting problems. D.

Q: Identify the age group of women who are least likely to obtain prenatal care. A. Late twenties B. Early thirties C. Adolescence D.

Q: Tammy is pregnant with her first child. She tells you that she loves swordfish and has it for dinner two or three times a week. Based on current research, what advice should you give Tammy about her diet? A. Swordfish is a great source of protein and she should continue to consume it. B. Swordfish is not as good for her as king mackerel; she should try to eat more mackerel. C. Swordfish is not recommended for pregnant women because it can contain high levels of mercury. D.

Q: What is the recommended daily dosage of folic acid for pregnant women, as issued the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services? A. 100 milligrams B. 200 micrograms C. 200 milligrams D.

Q: The lack of _____ in maternal nutrition has been associated with neural tube defects in offspring. A. vitamin C B. folic acid C. ferrous sulfate D.

Q: Priscilla just found out she is pregnant, and her doctor prescribed her a B-complex vitamin that promotes normal prenatal development and reduces the risk of preterm deliveries. Which of the following is the vitamin prescribed by Priscillas doctor? A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin C. Pantothenic acid D.

Q: Marlena, who just found out she is pregnant, has very poor eating habits. Her total calorie intake is very low. She eats little protein and unbalanced amounts of vitamins and minerals. If she continues her present eating habits, which of the following is most likely to occur? A. The baby will not be affected. B. The baby will develop Down syndrome. C. The baby is more likely to be malformed. D.

Q: Which of the following maternal diseases carries the risk of delivering very large infants, weighing 10 pounds or more? A. Genital herpes B. AIDS C. Gestational diabetes D.

Q: AIDS cannot be transmitted from the mother to the infant by which of the following means? A. During sperm/egg adhesion in the fertilization process B. During gestation across the placenta C. During delivery through contact with maternal blood or fluids D.

Q: Which of the following maternal diseases is likely to be transmitted to the infant through breast-feeding? A. Rubella B. Syphilis C. Genital herpes D.

Q: When a mother has active genital herpes, about _____ of children who are delivered through the infected birth canal become brain damaged. A. one-third B. one-fourth C. one-half D.

Q: Sylvia is almost nine months pregnant, and is very close to her delivery date. The doctors have found that she has an active case of genital herpes. Which of the following is the best course of action to prevent Sylvia's baby from contracting the disease? A. Performing a cesarean section B. Terminating the pregnancy C. Delivering the baby through the birth canal D.

Q: During delivery, which of the following diseases is transmitted to a newborn through the birth canal? A. Diabetes B. West Nile Virus C. Rubella D.

Q: Zia is pregnant and has a disease that, if untreated, may result in eye & skin lesions in her baby. This disease was also infamously studied in the Tuskegee experiment, perhaps one of the most unethical studies in the U.S. Which of the following diseases is Zia most likely to have? A. Genital warts B. Syphilis C. Rubella D.

Q: Rubella, also known as _____, is a maternal disease that can cause prenatal defects. A. German measles B. genital herpes C. syphilis D.

Q: Which of the following is FALSE about the complications of Rh incompatibility? A. If the fetus' blood is Rh-positive and the mother's is Rh-negative, the mother's immune system may produce antibodies that will attack the fetus. B. Babies affected by Rh incompatibility can be given blood transfusions before or right after birth. C. With each subsequent pregnancy, the risk of complications for an Rh-positive baby of an Rh-negative mother is reduced. D.

Q: Giovanna was found to be Rh incompatible with her first child. To prevent her body from producing antibodies that will attack any future Rh-incompatible fetuses, her doctor gave her: A. Rohypnol. B. RhoGAM. C. hemoglobin. D.