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Q:
Contrast the various economic interest groups that exist in the nation. Does one group (or groups) stand a better chance of success than others to succeed in influencing public policy? Why or why not?
Q:
Explain how economic interest groups, public-interest groups, and single-issue interest groups differ from each other.
Q:
One of the main ways third parties have influenced American politics is by
a. refusing to allow their policies to be adopted by a major party.
b. sometimes determining the outcome of an election by pulling votes from one of the major-party candidates.
c. focusing their efforts on getting judges appointed to the bench rather than winning elections for the executive or legislative branches.
d. winning elections to state legislative bodies.
e. gaining control of several municipal governments.
Q:
Many political scientists believe that third parties
a. have consistently failed because they never reflect the political mood of the nation.
b. have acted as safety valves for dissident groups, preventing major confrontations and political unrest.
c. can only come into existence if they are organized around a single charismatic leader.
d. can only come into existence if they split off from one of the major political parties.
e. are incapable of being formed from scratch by individuals who are committed to a particular issue or ideology.
Q:
The ______ is one by which all of a state's electoral votes are cast for the presidential candidate who receives a plurality of the votes in that state.a. patronage ruleb. straight-ticket rulec. apportionment ruled. winner-take-all rulee. unit rule
Q:
What is a plurality system?
a. Whoever gets the most votes wins.
b. Candidates must get more than 50 percent of votes cast to win.
c. Votes are allocated to candidates on a proportional basis.
d. Only parties receiving more than 5 percent of the vote are allocated seats.
e. A party must have competed in a previous election to be placed on the ballot.
Q:
Divided government is best understood as
a. the situation when a person votes for candidates of two parties for different offices.
b. the situation when the presidency and Congress are controlled by different parties.
c. another name for federalism.
d. increasing the control of the winning party in an election.
e. the indication of a strong party identification among voters.
Q:
Which of the following best describes patronage?a. The practice of rewarding faithful party workers and followers with government employment and contractsb. Putting family members in government jobsc. Committing to voting for something in exchange for a favorable vote in returnd. Equal opportunity without regard to race, creed, gender, national origin, or sexual orientatione. Giving people a reason to do something
Q:
For a political party, the national committee
a. is not authorized to play any role in financing the party's activities.
b. is the strongest and most powerful part of the party.
c. is dissolved after presidential elections.
d. chooses the party's nominee for president.
e. directs and coordinates party activities between national party conventions.
Q:
The document drawn up at each national convention outlining the policies, positions, and principles of the party is called the
a. rulebook.
b. statement of intent.
c. party platform.
d. national promise.
e. political covenant.
Q:
The national convention of a national political partya. is held every nine years.b. officially nominates the presidential and vice-presidential candidates.c. works behind closed doors.d. purges its membership regularly.e. promotes the development of third parties.
Q:
The party organization is
a. the members of the general public who identify with a political party.
b. the formal structure and leadership of a political party.
c. all of the elected and appointed officials who identify with a party.
d. the urban machines that distribute social benefits.
e. responsible only for mundane matters such as printing signs and scheduling events.
Q:
A major development in the run-up to the 2010 elections was the growth of the ______ movement.
a. Tea Party
b. Socialist
c. Atheist
d. Neo-Whig
e. Labor
Q:
Which of the following best describes the realignment of 1968?a. After 1968, the country was much less divided than before.b. After 1968, the country shifted to a majority of independents.c. After 1968, the country shifted to a Democratic majority.d. After 1968, the country shifted to a Republican majority.e. After 1968, there was a slow-motion realignment that left the nation almost evenly divided in politics.
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding politics and the Great Depression?
a. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Democratic economic competence.
b. Hoover supported federal relief for the unemployed and the destitute.
c. Roosevelt's relief programs were generally not available to African Americans, resulting in African Americans' antagonism toward the Democratic Party that lasted for decades.
d. The Great Depression shattered the working-class belief in Republican economic competence.
e. The Republican ascendancy lasted from the early 1930s until the late 1960s.
Q:
Under Woodrow Wilson, the Democratic Party
a. rejected progressivism.
b. continued to adhere to the same basic policies that it did in the nineteenth century.
c. began a radical change by becoming at least as receptive as the Republicans to government action in the economy.
d. permanently split into three antagonistic factions.
e. adopted a policy of isolating the United States from the affairs of the rest of the world.
Q:
Which of the following best describes a national political realignment?a. When voters abandon a political party in drovesb. When there is a major sea changec. A large-scale, lasting change in the types of voters who support each of the major political partiesd. A major exodus from a political party to the point that it disappearse. A change in the dominant school of thought of the time
Q:
The modern Republican Party was founded when the issue of ______ divided both existing political parties.
a. income taxation
b. export taxation
c. slavery
d. the stagnant domestic economy
e. government response to public health issues
Q:
All of the following statements about the early Democratic Party are true EXCEPT
a. it came into existence when the Republican Party split in two.
b. it was organized by supporters of Andrew Jackson.
c. it favored personal liberty and opportunity for the "common man."
d. its hostility toward African Americans was an important force holding it together.
e. it supported a policy of federal spending on "internal improvements" such as roads.
Q:
Which of the following statements about the early Republican Party is false?a. Thomas Jefferson initially led it.b. It favored a strong national government.c. Artisans and farmers supported the party.d. It was a staunch advocate of states' rights.e. When it was in office, its members acquired the Louisiana Territory and established a national bank.
Q:
George Washington viewed political parties as a
a. necessity for the functioning of democracy.
b. tradition from colonial times that would always exist.
c. threat to national unity and the concept of popular government.
d. legitimate means for interest groups to attempt to gain control of the government.
e. vestige of politics under Great Britain and thus a thing of the past.
Q:
A political system in which only two parties have a reasonable chance of winning is called
a. a bipartisan government.
b. a two-party system.
c. a bicameral system.
d. bifurcated government.
e. representative democracy.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a function of U.S. political parties?a. Taking the responsibility of operating the governmentb. Acting as the organized opposition to the party in powerc. Signing up large numbers of committed, dues-paying membersd. Recruiting political candidatese. Presenting alternative policies
Q:
A group or bloc in a legislature or political party acting in pursuit of some special interest or position is called a(n)
a. minority opinion.
b. independent party.
c. exclusive committee.
d. interest group.
e. faction.
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding political party membership?
a. One must pay dues to be a member of a political party.
b. An oath of allegiance is required by most political parties from its members.
c. To be a member of a political party, one must be a card-carrying member.
d. Nothing is required to be a member of a political party.
e. One must pass an examination to be a member of a political party.
Q:
An independent is aa. contrarian voter.b. voter or a candidate who does not identify with a political party.c. voter or a candidate who votes Democratic.d. voter or a candidate who votes Republican.e. voter or a candidate who votes Libertarian.
Q:
Legislation to reform the regulation of federal lobbying in 1995 resulted in all of the following EXCEPT
a. lobbyists were forced to register.
b. lobbying efforts had to be disclosed in semiannual reports.
c. the Senate adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.
d. a lobbyist was defined as someone who spent at least 20 percent of his or her time lobbying Congress, their staffs, or executive-branch officials.
e. the House adopted a flat ban on gifts provided by lobbyists.
Q:
Title III of the Legislative Reorganization Act of 1946
a. was Congress' first attempt to control lobbyists and lobbying activities.
b. is also known as the Lobbying Disclosure Act.
c. provided for regulation more than for disclosure.
d. failed to include a definition of "lobbyist."
e. proved to be very effective.
Q:
Which of the following best describes why interest groups try to generate public pressure?a. To convince policymakers that public opinion supports the group's positionb. To get the public to support only environmental initiativesc. To avoid the legislative processd. To make bureaucrats testify before Congresse. To directly lobby lawmakers
Q:
Interest groups recognize that the greatest concern of legislators is to
a. support the principles of their political party.
b. be reelected.
c. vote for the ideas of the constituents.
d. be totally informed on issues requiring their vote.
e. please the congressional leadership.
Q:
______ are a shorthand way of describing congressional members' voting records for interested citizens.
a. Newspaper op-eds
b. Official legislator evaluations
c. Ratings
d. "Astroturf lobbying" activities
e. Power rankings
Q:
Which of the following best describes indirect techniques employed by an interest group?a. Testifying before a Congressional committeeb. Lobbying for legislation that the members of a group might not approve ofc. Using the general public or individual constituents to influence government officialsd. Approaching officials personally to try to influence theme. Suggesting nominations for federal appointments
Q:
When an interest group and its lobbyists approach officials personally to present their case, they are engaging in
a. closed-door negotiations.
b. a breach of trust.
c. illegal fraternizing.
d. indirect techniques.
e. direct techniques.
Q:
Successful interest groups and their representatives try to cultivate long-term relationships with
a. foreign ambassadors.
b. legislators and government officials.
c. federal judges.
d. business leaders.
e. police commissioners and chiefs of police.
Q:
The key to success for interest groups isa. using a narrow range of strategies.b. access to government officials.c. having a small number of members.d. having members that are concentrated in one area.e. focusing on a broad range of issues.
Q:
When it comes to influencing the U.S. government, foreign governments
a. only engage in lobbying when the nation they are representing is large.
b. frequently hire former members of Congress to promote their positions on Capitol Hill.
c. engage only in official diplomatic processes.
d. are rarely interested in policy debates concerning trade issues.
e. are prohibited by law from attempting to influence U.S. policy.
Q:
The National Right to Life Committee and the National Rifle Association are examples of
a. economic interest groups.
b. single-interest groups.
c. public-interest groups.
d. foreign interest groups.
e. fringe interest groups.
Q:
Which of the following best describes what Common Cause does?a. It helped establish, then repeal, Prohibition.b. It has led to an overhaul of the Internal Revenue Service.c. It works to make governmental institutions more responsive to the needs of the public.d. It is the smallest interest group in the country in terms of numbers.e. It strives to ignore national priorities of the public.
Q:
All of the following statements about public-interest groups are true EXCEPT
a. a variety of lobbying organizations have been formed "in the public interest."
b. the best-known and perhaps most effective public-interest groups are those founded under the leadership of consumer activist Ralph Nader.
c. public-interest groups work for issues that will benefit only the narrow interests of a particular group.
d. public-interest groups are concerned with the overall community.
e. conservative public-interest groups have formed in response to Nader organizations.
Q:
The Audubon Society and the National Wildlife Federation are examples of __________ interest groups.
a. environmental
b. economic
c. agricultural
d. relatively ineffective
e. professional
Q:
The system of interest group politics has been accused of leaving out which of the following groups?a. The middle classb. The unorganized poorc. Professionalsd. The public sectore. Consumers
Q:
The American Bar Association and the American Medical Association are examples of
a. interest groups that do not engage in lobbying.
b. interest groups with small memberships (less than 1,000 members).
c. interest groups with relatively little influence.
d. interest groups of professionals.
e. public-interest groups.
Q:
Because of the decline in the ______ sector of the economy, national unions are looking to nontraditional areas for their membership.
a. nonprofit
b. migrant worker
c. agricultural
d. industrial
e. service
Q:
Which type of interest group has probably been more successful in obtaining U.S. government subsidies than any other?a. Public safetyb. Environmentalc. Professionald. Economice. Agricultural
Q:
Which types of interest groups are defined as economic interest groups?
a. Business, labor, and public-interest groups
b. Labor, agriculture, and single-issue groups.
c. Business, labor, and professional organizations.
d. Business, labor, and foreign governments.
e. Professionals, agriculture, and foreign governments.
Q:
"Umbrella groups" represent
a. collections of businesses or other entities.
b. umbrella manufacturers.
c. only small businesses.
d. only manufacturing businesses.
e. only international entities looking to do business with U.S. companies.
Q:
Most interest groups form to represent __________ interests.a. economicb. agriculturalc. foreignd. environmentale. professional
Q:
Which of the following best defines a social movement?
a. A group of people on the fringes of U.S. society
b. A group bent on subverting the government
c. A movement of people
d. A demand by a vast majority of the population to do something
e. A movement that represents the demands of a large segment of the population for political, economic, or social change
Q:
Lobbyists are best defined as
a. any association of individuals.
b. representatives of one of the two major political parties.
c. organizations or individuals that attempt to influence legislation and the government's administrative decisions.
d. members of Congress who challenge the majority position.
e. members of the congressional leadership who are in a position to shape the legislative agenda in a way that benefits powerful interest groups.
Q:
Which of the following best describes how a political party differs from an interest group?a. Political parties want to operate the government, but interest groups do not aim to do so.b. Political parties do not want to operate the government, but interest groups do.c. Interest groups share common objectives and attempt to influence policymakers.d. A political party tries to win elections, but interest groups do not.e. Political parties and interest groups determine public policy.
Q:
A political party is a group of political activists who
a. agree on all policy issues.
b. organize to win elections, operate the government, and determine public policy.
c. pay monthly dues to an ideological organization.
d. have been previously elected to office.
e. organize to stage protests.
Q:
An interest group is
a. any association of individuals.
b. an organized group of individuals who want to gain control of the government.
c. an organized group of individuals sharing common objectives who actively attempt to influence policymakers.
d. any organization that requires members to pay dues.
e. an organized group of individuals who support a specific candidate for public office.
Q:
Describe the ways in which the government is involved in regulating the media. Why is regulation necessary? What effects does it have on what information we receive?
Q:
Provide an example of media "spin" about a current political issue or campaign. What tactics have been most effective in shaping public opinion?
Q:
Describe the ways television has been used in, and influenced, political campaigns.
Q:
How important is it that newspapers are struggling? Are online sources of news such as blogs a good replacement for print news? Why or why not?
Q:
Identify the functions performed by the mass media in the United States. Are certain functions more important than others? Why or why not?
Q:
What trends can be seen in public opinion about institutions? Describe factors that drive these trends.
Q:
When conducting a public opinion poll, what things must be taken into consideration and what problems might there be? What measures help ensure accurate results?
Q:
How do demographic influences shape voting behavior? Use specific examples in your answer.
Q:
How does political socialization occur in the United States? Explain the various means by which Americans obtain their political beliefs.
Q:
Describe the difference between consensus and divided opinions. Can politicians use either one more effectively than the other to form public policy? Why or why not?
Q:
Studies of bias in the media have reacheda. different conclusions: some found a liberal bias, whereas others found a conservative bias.b. a clear conclusion: there is a liberal bias in the media.c. a clear conclusion: there is a conservative bias in the media.d. a clear conclusion: there is no bias in the media.e. the conclusion that it is impossible to test for bias.
Q:
Which of the following best describes bias?
a. An inclination or preference that interferes with impartial judgment
b. Information that is the personal property of someone
c. The news media injecting opinions into reporting to reflect the political attitudes of its consumers
d. Networks such as the Corporation for Public Broadcasting
e. None of the above
Q:
Blogs and the Internet have
a. improved candidates' management of sound bites.
b. made it more difficult for candidates to manage the news coverage of their campaigns.
c. prevented news organizations from using video clips and other online materials.
d. had little effect on campaigns.
e. made it more difficult for campaigns to raise funds.
Q:
A political advisor who tries to convince journalists of the truth of a particular interpretation of events is called aa. news consultant.b. flip-flopper.c. spin doctor.d. fact checker.e. win engineer.
Q:
Negative political ads can backfire when
a. there are only two candidates in the race.
b. there are three or more candidates in the race.
c. they mention atomic attacks.
d. they decrease the profitability of television station owners.
e. they are run by Democratic candidates.
Q:
A brief, memorable comment that can easily be fit into news broadcasts is a
a. falsehood.
b. story line.
c. multimedia platform.
d. sound bite.
e. unit of analysis.
Q:
The media tends to depend on ______ for their income.a. subscriptionsb. Internet taxesc. government spendingd. advertiserse. contributions
Q:
The public agenda is
a. decided by the public through ballot initiatives.
b. issues that are perceived by the political community as meriting public attention and governmental action.
c. never influenced by the mass media.
d. also called the Massachusetts ballot.
e. an explicit agreement among media providers about what topics to cover and how.
Q:
By far, the greatest number of radio and television hours are dedicated toa. identifying public problems.b. reporting the news.c. entertaining the public.d. providing a political forum.e. educating the public.
Q:
Today, ______ of Americans use television news as their primary source of information.a. less than 10 percentb. 25 percentc. 55 percentd. 78 percente. 69 percent
Q:
The public tends to emphasize problems that are
a. long-term.
b. immediate.
c. education-related.
d. easily solved.
e. most likely to affect future generations.
Q:
Political culture, to some extent, consists of symbols, such as
a. the American flag.
b. the Liberty Bell.
c. the Empire State Building.
d. Both options A and B are true.
e. None of the above is true.
Q:
Which of the following best describes political trust?a. People identifying themselves as Democrats, Republicans, or independentsb. Degree to which individuals express trust in political institutionsc. Everyone having the right to voted. People's thinking about somethings.e. Huge majority of Americans demanding the nation do something about a given issue
Q:
All of the following about American political culture is true EXCEPT
a. it is a set of attitudes and ideas about the nation and government.
b. it consists of symbols such as the American flag, the Liberty Bell, and the Statue of Liberty.
c. it supports the political system.
d. it is only shared by Americans of similar backgrounds.
e. shared beliefs exist about values such as liberty, equality, and property.
Q:
Critical consumers should watch out for surveys with ______ and other types of skewed samples.
a. margins of error greater than one percent
b. large numbers of respondents
c. quota-sampled respondents
d. randomly-sampled respondents
e. self-selected respondents
Q:
The answers given by respondents to poll questions are influenced by all of the following EXCEPTa. the order in which questions are asked.b. wanting to please the interviewer.c. a yes/no format that restricts the respondents' choices.d. the size of the sample.e. the possible answers from which the respondents are allowed to choose.
Q:
Which of the following methods is most likely to control sampling error?
a. Surveying the least educated
b. Processing survey results quickly
c. Conducting a telephone poll
d. Taking a large random sample
e. Taking a large quota sample
Q:
Sampling error occurs whena. a whole generation of voters uniformly believe that something is based on a commonly shared experience.b. socioeconomic status influences what types of answers are given in a survey.c. an interviewer presents survey questions with a good deal of bias.d. there is a difference between the sample result and what the sample really responded.e. there is a difference between a sample result and the true result if the entire population had been interviewed.