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Q:
What are implied powers? Describe several examples.
Q:
What three models exist for organizing relations between a central government and local or subnational governments? Compare and contrast each model in terms of their advantages and disadvantages.
Q:
Individual health insurance mandates and the ability of states to ban same-sex marriage are two issues that
a. have been decided by the Supreme Court recently.
b. are currently being decided by the Supreme Court.
c. the Supreme Court has refused to consider.
d. can only be decided by the states.
e. have been criticized for being unfunded mandates.
Q:
When the Supreme Court heard cases involving federalism in the last decade, the rulings they gave can best be perceived as
a. in line with decisions of previous decades.
b. unconstitutional.
c. supporting a strong federal government.
d. supporting states' rights.
e. sending mixed messages.
Q:
The 1995 case, ______, marked the first time in sixty years that the Supreme Court had placed a limit on the national government's authority under the commerce clause.a. McCulloch v. Marylandb. Roe v. Wadec. Gibbons v. Ogdend. United States v. Lopeze. Brown v. Board of Education
Q:
All of the following statements regarding federal mandates are true EXCEPT
a. requirements in federal legislation have been passed that force states to comply with certain rules.
b. the Federal Government has mandated that states take action with respect to voter registration.
c. federal mandates always are accompanied by federal funding.
d. an Act of Congress requires the Congressional Budget Office to identify mandates that cost more than $50 million to implement.
e. states may not ignore federal mandates.
Q:
One major set of ______ provides aid to state welfare programs.
a. categorical grants
b. program grants
c. federal mandates
d. block grants
e. municipal grants
Q:
A federal grant that provides funds to a state or local government for a general functional area is called aa. project grant.b. block grant.c. community action grant.d. basic grant.e. categorical grant.
Q:
In the 1980s and 1990s, the federal government used ______ to force the states to raise their minimum alcoholic beverage drinking age to 21.
a. new legislation
b. conditions attached to federal highway grants
c. a Supreme Court ruling
d. international standards
e. a series of lawsuits
Q:
Categorical grants are
a. federal grants to states or local governments for specific programs or projects.
b. emergency grants to states for unforeseen circumstances.
c. a very recent form of national government support to school districts.
d. unconstitutional because of separation of powers.
e. federal grants to states or local governments for general operating expenses.
Q:
All are true of federal grants EXCEPTa. that they increased significantly during the twentieth century.b. that they have been used for education, pollution control, recreation, and highway construction.c. that they quadrupled in dollar amount in the 1960s.d. that they are given by the states for national projects.e. that they have been accompanied by a multitude of restrictions and regulations.
Q:
The No Child Left Behind Act of 2001
a. gave the states more control of their schools.
b. established a school voucher system.
c. increased the local school boards' freedom in evaluating student achievement.
d. increased federal control over education.
e. was enacted by Congress under Democratic President Bill Clinton.
Q:
The transfer of powers from a national or central government to a state or local government is called
a. reduction of burden.
b. identity politics.
c. devolution.
d. evolution.
e. dissemination.
Q:
Expanded authority of the national government has traditionally been preferred bya. liberals.b. conservatives.c. libertarians.d. social conservatives.e. southern conservatives.
Q:
________ have traditionally favored the allocation of power to the states.
a. Liberals
b. Conservatives
c. Libertarians
d. Civil rights activists
e. Political independents
Q:
A model of federalism in which the states and the national government work together to solve problems is called
a. New Deal federalism.
b. compromise federalism.
c. continental federalism.
d. dual federalism.
e. cooperative federalism.
Q:
The doctrine of dual federalism receded into the background as the nation attempted to deal witha. growing international pressure.b. the aftermath of World War I.c. the aftermath of the Civil War.d. the Great Depression.e. rampant political corruption.
Q:
In 1918, the Supreme Court ruled that an earlier national law banning child labor was unconstitutional, because
a. the rights of children are no different from those of adults.
b. it attempted to regulate a local problem.
c. it gave too much discretion to states.
d. it was unenforceable.
e. it interfered with national security.
Q:
During the Civil War crisis, the Supreme Court
a. was drastically reduced in its influence within the United States.
b. continued as the legitimate constitutional umpire.
c. gained additional power, along with the rest of the national government.
d. ruled that the initial plan of Congress to reconstruct the South was unconstitutional.
e. had supported the abolition of slavery in the years leading up to the war.
Q:
Post Civil War, the doctrine of dual federalism meanta. a significant increase in the powers of the national government.b. a "return to normalcy" for many.c. continued expansion of the North's wartime powers.d. allowing the national government to regulate all state actions affecting African Americans.e. allowing the state and national governments to interfere in each other's areas of influence.
Q:
A model of federalism that looks on national and state governments as co-equal sovereign powers, neither of which should interfere in the other's sphere is called
a. confederalism.
b. cooperative federalism.
c. dual federalism.
d. separate-but-equal federalism.
e. post-war federalism.
Q:
Ultimately, the Civil War resulted in
a. the end of the idea that social problems should be dealt with by the national government.
b. the expansion of the agricultural sector of the U.S. economy.
c. a shift from a federal to a confederal system of government.
d. an increase in states' rights.
e. an increase in the political power of national government.
Q:
On December 20, 1860, ______ formally repealed its ratification of the Constitution and withdrew from the Union.a. Alabamab. South Carolinac. Louisianad. Georgiae. Virginia
Q:
During the Jacksonian era (1829-1837), a shift toward ______ began.a. a service sector-based economyb. women's suffragec. more activist international interventiond. a strong national governmente. states' rights
Q:
The controversy over slavery that led to the Civil War took the form of a dispute over
a. national government supremacy versus the rights of the separate states.
b. interstate commerce.
c. the application of the Bill of Rights to the states.
d. taxation.
e. the admission of Texas into the Union.
Q:
In the 1930s and subsequent decades, the ______ became the primary constitutional basis for national government regulation.a. commerce clauseb. Bill of Rightsc. necessary and proper claused. Treaty of Versaillese. Work Projects Administration (WPA)
Q:
The section of the Constitution in which Congress is given the authority to regulate trade among the states and with foreign countries is called the
a. oversight clause.
b. commerce clause.
c. supremacy clause.
d. necessary and proper clause.
e. interstate compact clause.
Q:
In his ruling on Gibbons v. Ogden, Marshall defined commerce as
a. any business dealings between legally incorporated organizations.
b. any business dealing requiring an operating license.
c. all business dealings having to do with the physical exchange of currency.
d. all business dealings, including navigation and the transport of people.
e. only the shipment of goods.
Q:
All of the following are true about the case of McCulloch v. Maryland EXCEPTa. the case dealt with the issue of implied powers of the federal government.b. one issue was whether the federal government could create a national bank.c. the decision allowed the federal government to grow and expand.d. the decision upheld the right of the federal government to use the necessary and proper clause.e. the Supreme Court ruled the national government could only use its express powers.
Q:
From 1801 to 1835, the Supreme Court was headed by Chief Justice __________.
a. Henry Clay.
b. Samuel Alito.
c. John Jay.
d. John Marshall.
e. Roger Taney.
Q:
In the early years, most of the disputes over the boundaries of national versus state power involved
a. different interpretations of the inherent powers of the national government.
b. the role of the national government in mediating disputes between the states.
c. the ability of the states to enter into international treaties.
d. the enforcement of the Bill of Rights.
e. the necessary and proper clause and the powers of the national government to regulate interstate commerce.
Q:
Under what circumstances may states enter into agreements with one another?a. The agreements may not increase the power of the contracting states relative to other states or to the federal government.b. All states in that region must approve of the agreement.c. Threefourths of both states' legislators must approve the agreement.d. A majority of the people in each state must approve of the agreement.e. The combined population of the two agreeing states must be smaller than the population of the largest U.S. state.
Q:
Each state must do all of the following concerning other states EXCEPT
a. give full faith and credit to one another's public civil acts.
b. enforce each other's laws.
c. give full faith and credit to each other's public records.
d. gve full faith and credit to one another's public legal proceedings.
e. return people fleeing from justice to the state where the crime occurred.
Q:
Which is an example of an interstate compact?
a. The rules set forth in Article IV of the Constitution
b. The Bill of Rights
c. The Alien and Sedition Acts
d. The Marbury v. Madison decision
e. The Port Authority of New York and New Jersey
Q:
The supremacy clause of the Constitution means thata. the original Constitution is superior to any amendment.b. the original states have a superior status when dealing with states created after 1789.c. states cannot use their powers to thwart national policies.d. Congress cannot pass legislation that would violate state laws or constitutions.e. treaties with foreign governments cannot overturn state laws.
Q:
Constitutionally, which two sets of powers do state governments have?
a. Enumerated and expressed powers
b. Reserved and concurrent powers
c. Direct and inherent powers
d. Expressed and implied powers
e. Inherent and police powers
Q:
States may NOT
a. license marriages.
b. pass laws regulating contracts.
c. regulate divorce.
d. negotiate treaties with foreign nations.
e. impose taxes on income.
Q:
Powers held jointly by the national and state governments are calleda. cooperative powers.b. statutory powers.c. reserved powers.d. concurrent powers.e. inherent powers.
Q:
Their ________ power enables states to pass laws governing such activities as marriage, contracts, education, and land use.
a. commerce clause
b. enumerated
c. emergency
d. necessary and proper
e. police
Q:
The Tenth Amendment states that the powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are
a. the sole authority of Congress.
b. reserved to the central government.
c. reserved to the states, or to the people.
d. the sole authority of the executive branch.
e. subject to judicial review.
Q:
Inherent powers derive from the fact that the United States isa. a democratic republic.b. a confederation formed by state governments.c. a sovereign power among nations.d. a federal system.e. explicitly entitled by the Constitution to annex new territory.
Q:
Examples of enumerated powers belonging exclusively to the national government include
a. declaring war and coining money.
b. taxation and establishment of courts.
c. regulating commerce and crime within states.
d. regulating public schools and divorces.
e. taxing exports and holding elections.
Q:
Which clause of the Constitution allows Congress to carry out whatever law it needs to in order to carry out the
Constitution's provisions?
a. Necessary and proper clause
b. Supremacy clause
c. Concurrent clause
d. Reserved powers clause
e. Due process clause
Q:
A special category of national powers that is not implied by the necessary and proper clause consists of what have been labelled _____ powers of the national government.a. the inherentb. the enumerated or expressedc. reservedd. concurrente. in the necessary and proper clause.
Q:
According to the Constitution, if a state or local law conflicts with a national law,
a. the law must be put to a popular vote.
b. the law is null and void.
c. the local law prevails.
d. the national law supercedes the state or local law.
e. the state law will prevail.
Q:
Which of the following is an argument against federalism?
a. That too much inequity exists between states in a federal system
b. That it prevents creation of a strong party system
c. The rigidity of the national government in confronting change
d. That it is difficult for governors to become president
e. That it is too simplistic for a nation with a large geographic area and population
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a sound argument for a federalist system of government?a. The large area or population of some nations makes it impractical to locate all political authority in one place.b. Federalism brings government closer to the people.c. Federalism offers a "training ground" for national leaders.d. States are testing grounds for new government initiatives.e. Federalism allows powerful state and local interests to block progress and impede national plans.
Q:
The federal system in the United States occurred because of
a. disputes involving freedom of religion.
b. consensus that unitary government threatens liberty.
c. unitary failure.
d. a series of compromises.
e. copying the continental European political model.
Q:
All of the following statements concerning a federal system of government are true EXCEPT
a. they always have a bicameral legislature.
b. they are divided between a central government and regional, or subdivisional, governments.
c. some powers are bestowed upon the central government, and others are granted to the regional governments.
d. power is not concentrated in a unicameral legislature within a strong central government.
e. power is exercised by the national government only insofar as these powers are granted by the states.
Q:
All of the following is true about a confederal system EXCEPTa. it is opposite of a unitary system.b. it was the form of government used in the United States under the Articles of Confederation.c. the central government has only those powers granted to it by the states.d. it is the form of government used in the United States today.e. few, if any, true confederations exist.
Q:
In unitary government systems, ultimate authority resides at the ________ level.
a. state or provincial
b. local or municipal
c. regional
d. national or central
e. individual
Q:
Which government system is the most popular, both historically and today?
a. A unitary system
b. A confederal system
c. A federal system
d. A bicameral system
e. A grassroots system
Q:
The process of amending the U.S. Constitution is an intentionally difficult one. Yet those in each branch of government have found ways in which the Constitution can be changed informally. Describe the methods, both formal and informal, of constitutional change.
Q:
Describe the two formal methods of proposing an amendment to the Constitution.
Q:
The Constitution's ratification process included arguments for and against ratification by Federalists and Anti Federalists, respectively. Describe and evaluate the arguments expressed by both of these groups.
Q:
At the Constitutional Convention, several compromises were made to garner the support of various states. Describe these compromises and the debates that surrounded them.
Q:
Describe the concepts of separation of powers and checks and balances, and explain why the Founding Fathers included these concepts in the framework of the Constitution.
Q:
Describe the controversy surrounding the slavery issue. How was this resolved at the Constitutional Convention?
Q:
Did the government under the Articles of Confederation do more to preserve individual liberty than that of the federal government under the Constitution? Why or why not?
Q:
What significance does the Declaration of Independence have to Americans today, relative to the Constitution or other famous American documents?
Q:
Did the founders intend the United States to be a Christian nation? Describe both sides of the argument.
Q:
What institutions had the most impact on the founding of state governments and the Federal Government of the United States of America?
Q:
The law is what ______ says it is at any point in time, generally speaking.
a. the Senate
b. the Supreme Court
c. the president
d. the press
e. the academic community
Q:
In 1803, the Supreme Court claimed the power of ______ for itself in Marbury v. Madison.
a. judicial review
b. constitutional amendment
c. legislative ratification
d. executive review
e. appeal
Q:
All of the following is widely considered to be an informal method of amending the Constitution EXCEPTa. Supreme Court decisions.b. Congressional legislation.c. Presidential action.d. interpretation, custom, and usage.e. the formal amendment process.
Q:
Article III, Section 1 of the Constitution gives Congress the power to
a. override presidential vetoes.
b. establish a system of courts below the Supreme Court.
c. limit the power of local governments.
d. regulate the media.
e. levy income taxes.
Q:
Judicial review is
a. a method by which the president can check the judiciary.
b. the process of confirmation of federal judges by Congress.
c. the power of the courts to declare federal or state laws and other acts of government unconstitutional.
d. not applicable to actions by state governments.
e. restricted to the Supreme Court in overturning decisions by lower courts.
Q:
Out of more than 11,000 amendments to the Constitution that have been considered by Congress, only ______ have been ratified.a. 10b. 12c. 18d. 27e. 33
Q:
Which groups are involved in proposing and ratifying amendments to the Constitution?
a. The state legislatures, the president, and Congress
b. The Senate, the Supreme Court, and the House of Representatives
c. Congress, the president, and the people
d. The Senate, the House of Representatives, and the state legislatures
e. The House of Representatives, the president, and the Senate
Q:
A constitutional amendment can be ratified by
a. a majority of the popular vote.
b. a positive vote in three-fourths of the legislatures of the various states.
c. a two-thirds vote in both houses of Congress.
d. approval of the legislatures in two-thirds of the states.
e. presidential approval.
Q:
One of the two formal methods of proposing an amendment to the Constitution is bya. popular vote.b. a two-thirds vote in each chamber of Congress.c. approval of the legislatures in a majority of the states.d. a majority vote in both chambers of Congress, provided the amendment is not vetoed by the president.e. a judicial submission.
Q:
The U.S. Constitution is shorter than any state constitution EXCEPT that of
a. Maryland.
b. Vermont.
c. South Carolina.
d. Georgia.
e. New York.
Q:
The Bill of Rights provided for
a. protection of individual liberties at the state level.
b. protection of individual liberties at the national level.
c. equal protection under the law.
d. protection against state infringements on the freedoms of conscience, the press, and jury trial.
e. separation of powers.
Q:
The Bill of Rights was important for ratification of the Constitution becausea. state constitutions already had such rights.b. such rights were stipulated in the Articles of Confederation.c. some states would not have voted to ratify the Constitution without the promise of amendments to protect individual liberties.d. the colonists wanted to conform to international standards.e. the Federalists were wary of a strong central government.
Q:
The Anti-Federalists advocated
a. altering the Constitution to include guaranteed personal liberties.
b. a strong central government.
c. ratifying the new Constitution.
d. an end to slavery.
e. rule by the aristocracy.
Q:
The Federalists advocated
a. preserving the status quo.
b. returning to the Articles of Confederation.
c. ratifying the new Constitution.
d. a strong state government system.
e. constitutional monarchy.
Q:
Ratification of the Constitution was to occur when it was approved bya. the thirteen state legislatures.b. nine out of thirteen states.c. the thirteen state legislatures and two-thirds of Congress.d. popular vote in nine states.e. popular vote in all thirteen states.
Q:
The Constitution that was to be ratified established the following fundamental principles EXCEPT
a. popular sovereignty, or control by the people.
b. a republican government in which the people choose representatives to make decisions for them.
c. limited government with written laws.
d. a federal system that allows for states' rights, because the states feared too much centralized control.
e. presidential infallibility.
Q:
The group that officially elects the president of the United States is called
a. the Presidential Election Commission.
b. the Congressional Election Forum.
c. the Association of State Legislatures.
d. the Electoral College.
e. the Electorate at Large.
Q:
The concept of checks and balances allowsa. each branch of the government to be able to check the actions of the others.b. the president to veto judicial decisions.c. the president to pass laws during a time of crisis.d. Congress to select justices of the Supreme Court.e. the Treasury to print paper currency.