Q&A Hero

Q: Describe the function of the Caux Round Table. List and describe three of the Caux Round Table Principles for Business.

Q: What role does cultural intelligence play in a company's success in managing stakeholder issues in a global environment?

Q: The continuous review and revision of the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Guidelines results in which of the following? a. The obscurity of the Guidelines b. The limited relevance of the Guidelines c. The high number of contemporary issues that are not addressed by the Guidelines d. The accommodation of innovation in technology and shifts in cultural attitudes e. The erosion of the Guidelines' authority

Q: What are the three categories of core indicators included in the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) framework? a. Fiscal, ethical, and environmental responsibility b. International, national, and regional influence c. Intended, actual, and perceived benefit d. Political, economic, and logistical support e. Economic, environmental, and social performance

Q: Which of the following makes the Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) particularly valuable? a. The GRI makes comparisons possible because it uses a globally applicable and well-vetted framework. b. The GRI allows firms to formally assess and document social responsibility outcomes. c. The GRI allows firms to include social responsibility reporting in annual reports or sustainability reports. d. The GRI makes assessment possible because its framework includes social responsibility indicators. e. The GRI allows firms to communicate its social responsibility outcomes to stakeholders.

Q: Social responsibility reporting is valuable for a company as a means to do all of the following except a. communicate its values. b. conceal its weaknesses. c. highlight successes. d. communicate its plans. e. gain feedback for the future.

Q: Which of the following is a widely known certification corporate accountability partnership? a. Grameen Bank b. Self Employed Women's Association c. Russell Corporation d. Fair Labor Association e. AccountAbility

Q: Which type of partnership for development does not have to prove a specific effort toward social responsibility? a. Corporate social responsibility partnerships b. Conventional business partnerships c. Corporate accountability partnerships d. Certification corporate accountability partnerships e. Social economy partnerships

Q: What is the United Nation's philosophy toward improvements in the development of countries around the world? a. "Money often costs too much" b. "You can never plan the future by the past" c. "A rising tide lifts all boats" d. "Time is manifest" e. "No pressure, no diamonds"

Q: What term refers to improvements in the economic, environmental, educational, and health conditions of a country? a. Social competitiveness b. Nation building c. Sustainability d. Globalization e. Development

Q: According to Amartya Sen, national competitiveness and development correlate with political, social, and economic freedoms due to a. the contagion effect of freedom. b. the complacency effect of freedom. c. an unexplained phenomenon. d. the role of personal autonomy in cultural advancement. e. the role of personal autonomy in privatization.

Q: Overall, what do conclusions drawn from the Responsible Competitiveness Index (RCI) indicate? a. Social responsibility reduces the economic competitiveness of countries. b. Social responsibility reinforces the economic competitiveness of countries. c. Social responsibility reduces the technological competitiveness of countries. d. Social responsibility improves the technological competitiveness of countries. e. Social responsibility reduces the philanthropic activity of countries.

Q: What are the three drivers of responsible competitiveness? a. Cooperative drivers, privatization, and media enablers b. Governance drivers, social action, and economic enablers c. Pollution drivers, biological action, and resource enablers d. Employer drivers, employee action, and consumer enablers e. Policy drivers, business action, and social enablers

Q: Responsible competitiveness involves the positive effects of socially responsible business practices on a nation's a. environmental impact. b. technological innovation. c. philanthropic activity. d. economic success. e. employee engagement.

Q: According to the GlobeScan study and other reports, which of the following is true of fair trade certified products? a. Fair trade certified products lose consumer interest during summer months. b. Fair trade certified products lose consumer interest during times of economic downturn. c. Fair trade certified products maintain consumer interest during times of economic downturn. d. Fair trade certified products maintain consumer interest in the countries in which they are produced. e. Fair trade certified products lose consumer interest in the countries in which they are produced.

Q: Which of the following terms refers to a trading partnership based on dialogue, transparency, and respect that seeks greater equity in international trade and contributes to sustainable development? a. Global reporting initiative b. Global trading initiative c. Free trade d. Fair trade e. Cooperative trade

Q: Because cultural differences introduce new complexities to the process of ethical decision-making, companies' attitudes toward training rubrics are best described by which of the following statements? a. Training rubrics become less and less useful as the work environment becomes more global. b. Training rubrics must be lengthy in order to apply directly to any situation that may arise. c. Training rubrics are pivotal to an employee's ability to assess an ethical issue and respond appropriately. d. Training rubrics are helpful but not as important as an employee's common sense. e. Training rubrics increase the likelihood an employee will respond inappropriately.

Q: According to Mercer's survey, all of the following are global drivers for employee engagement except a. the work itself, including opportunities for development. b. a high level of autonomy. c. confidence and trust in leadership. d. recognition and rewards. e. organizational communication.

Q: Which of the following foreshadowed the movement to write and implement widely accepted codes of conduct? a. The Fair Trade Certification Label b. The Sullivan Principles c. Rabobank d. The United Nations' Global Compact e. The United Nations' Millenium Development Goals

Q: Which of the following is least likely to be a relevant perspective for examining stakeholder issues that are present in a global environment? a. Economic b. Eurocentric c. Legal d. Ethical e. Philanthropic

Q: Which of the following statements is not true of someone with a high level of cultural intelligence? a. Plans carefully before meeting with someone who is from a different cultural background b. Generally understands other cultures, cultural values, and similarities and differences between cultures c. Is very interested in other cultures and enjoys meeting people who have different cultural backgrounds d. Modifies behavior to make others more comfortable and follows local conventions e. Believes members of other cultures need to be educated so that they understand what is appropriate

Q: Which of the following would most likely indicate a high potential for a culturally diverse work group to achieve positive outcomes? a. The group's leadership recognizes one culture as the 'right' culture b. The group believes cultural issues should not come into play at work c. The group organizes itself into subgroups based on cultural similarities d. Each member of the group has a high level of cultural intelligence e. A few members of the group have high levels of cultural intelligence

Q: Approximately ____ of all countries have at least one minority group that represents a distinct subculture. a. three-fourths b. two-thirds c. one half d. one-third e. one-fourth

Q: A person who is skilled at recognizing how one individual or group is influenced by national, professional, and organizational cultures demonstrates which of the following? a. High responsible competitiveness b. Low Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) compliance c. High Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) compliance d. Low cultural intelligence e. High cultural intelligence

Q: The three components of cultural intelligence are a. economic, ethical, and legal. b. primary, secondary, and tertiary. c. motivational, cognitive, and behavioral. d. environmental, technological, and educational. e. occupational, familial, and recreational.

Q: What is cultural intelligence? a. The process of identifying and interacting appropriately with people that share one's own culture b. The ability to interpret and adapt successfully to different national, organizational, and professional cultures c. An evaluation of a person's ability to adhere to their culture in a variety of challenging situations d. Information that may be used to monitor cultural groups' behavior as consumers e. Knowledge used to identify and avoid situations in which cultural differences are likely to cause confusion

Q: How should a company address stakeholder concerns about environmental issues?

Q: Why have some endangered species been purposely harmed by landowners?

Q: What are three of the duties of the Environmental Protection Agency?

Q: What is urban sprawl, and what negative environmental impacts have resulted because of it?

Q: What factors have contributed to increased concerns about the available quantities of water?

Q: What are the negative effects caused by air pollution?

Q: What is ISO 14000? a. National environmental standards that promote a cleaner and safer environment for all Americans b. A comprehensive set of environmental standards that encourage a cleaner, safer, and healthier world c. The required standard for reporting information about environmental performance to stakeholders d. A standardized auditing process that evaluates a company's environmental performance e. International regulatory body that is responsible for punishing companies who are not in compliance with global environmental standards

Q: What must high-commitment organizations strive to do with respect to environmental issues and the organization's stakeholders? a. Constantly keep all of their stakeholders satisfied b. Prioritize claims by refusing to evaluate ones that are potentially insignificant c. Avoid much negotiation in order to maintain a proper balance of power d. Evaluate the latest information and maintain consistent communication with all stakeholders e. Remember that all stakeholders are equal and treat them as such regarding environmental issues

Q: What is the real difficulty in conducting a risk analysis? a. Identifying the environmental issues that might be related to any one type of company or product b. Identifying which stakeholder groups have concerns about various environmental issues c. Measuring the costs and benefits of environmental decisions, especially in the eyes of interested stakeholders d. Conducting government or industry research as part of the response to environmental concerns e. Determining the specific environmental factors that could impact a business decision

Q: What is socially responsible buying? a. Buying that attempts to take into account the public consequences of organizational buying or bring about positive social change through organizational buying behavior b. When consumers take factors such as the percentage of recycled material included in a product and its packaging into account when making purchase decisions c. Organizational buying policies that mandate the purchase of materials that are approved as environmentally friendly regardless of the costs involved d. When an organization uses more than its share of greenhouse gas emissions and purchases credits from other companies who have already surpassed their target level e. Maintaining strict standards about suppliers' commitment to social issues

Q: What type of product is a television? a. Consumable b. Durable c. Recyclable d. Unsalable e. Disposable

Q: Which of the following is not one of the goals that companies should strive for in working to protect and preserve the environment? a. Companies should rethink the concept of a product. b. Businesses should seek ways to make their commitment to the environment profitable. c. Companies should minimize the costs of complying with laws by taking shortcuts. d. Companies should strive to eliminate the concept of waste. e. The price of products should reflect their true costs.

Q: Specific development, pricing, promotion, and distribution of products that do less harm to the environment are known as a. green marketing. b. earth friendly. c. eco-labeling. d. environmental designing. e. nonpolluting promoting.

Q: What does the Clean Water Act make illegal? a. Failing to implement innovative water treatment plans in manufacturing sites b. Dumping chemicals into rivers, lakes, and other waterways that may affect drinking water quality c. Discharging any water that has not been thoroughly refined through a purification process d. Discharging a pollutant from a point source into navigable waters without a permit e. Using water within a factory that does not pass the safety standards set by the federal government

Q: What is the main purpose of the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act? a. Control the use of pesticides through federal regulation b. Require all pesticides to be registered with the federal government c. Ensure that all pesticides are 100 percent safe for the environment d. Through federal control, limit who can sell harmful chemicals e. Place the distribution, sale, and use of pesticides under federal control

Q: What is the main legislation to regulate atmospheric emissions? a. Environmental Protection Act b. Pure Atmosphere Act c. Clean Air Act d. Pollution Prevention Act e. NAAQS

Q: What is the most influential regulatory agency concerning environmental issues in the United States? a. FIFRA b. FTC c. Earth Day Council d. EPA e. NAAQS

Q: What is the main problem associated with genetically modified plants and genetic engineering of animal cells? a. They are too expensive to be practical. b. The long-term effects cannot be predicted. c. They are almost impossible to create and produce. d. They do not seem to improve the short-term outcome. e. They fail to increase the yield of crops.

Q: What argument lies at the heart of environmental battles over endangered species habitats throughout the world? a. Most people realize that the loss of any one species will not threaten the entire ecosystem or create a decline in biodiversity. b. Global research indicates that declining numbers of plant species have little impact on the overall ecosystem. c. People argue that human beings are more important than any one species of plant or animal. d. There is a significant burden incurred by complying with endangered species laws, and the laws do little to protect the species anyway. e. People argue that there are few benefits received from biodiversity, and no regulation is needed to protect endangered species.

Q: Which of the following is not a major environmental issue affecting land? a. Land pollution b. Greenhouse effect c. Urban sprawl d. Deforestation e. Waste management

Q: Which of the following best describes the relationship between drinking water quality and water pollution? a. Water from surface reservoirs and water from underground aquifers can both be harmed by water pollution. b. Water pollution most likely affects the quality of drinking water from surface reservoirs such as rivers and lakes since these are the primary sources of our drinking water supplies. c. Very few drinking water systems in the United States are in violation of federal safety standards, as these water pollution problems are found only in less industrialized countries. d. Water pollution is generally less of a factor in industrialized areas, because most industries carefully clean potentially harmful discharges in order to protect drinking water quality. e. Although water pollution usually affects the fish, animals, and plants living in and near the bodies of water, it rarely impacts the quality of the drinking water directly.

Q: What is the Kyoto Protocol? a. Specific international standards that every nation must comply with in regards to emission of gases b. Standards that every nation must comply with in regards to the emission of pollutants into streams and drinking water supplies c. A controversial treaty proposed among industrialized nations to slow global warming d. A United States law that regulates the emission of harmful gases into the atmosphere without a permit e. An alliance of scientists worldwide working to prove the harmful effects certain gases can have on the environment

Q: Increasing amounts of carbon dioxide and methane in the earth's atmosphere can result in which negative environmental impact? a. Acid rain b. Air pollution c. Greenhouse melting d. Kyoto gases e. Global warming

Q: In what decade did environmental concerns start to become a focus of governments around the globe in the form of environmental protection laws? a. 1910s b. 1930s c. 1950s d. 1970s e. 1990s

Q: Which of the following best defines the natural environment from a business perspective? a. The physical world, including all biological entities, as well as the interaction between nature and individuals, organizations, and business strategies b. The physical world including all biological and geological entities c. Plants, animals, human beings, oceans and other waterways, land, and the atmosphere d. Any entity or combination of entities that has an impact on the way that organizations conduct their business e. Any resource that is found in limited quantities and requires protection through national or state regulation

Q: Up until the twentieth century, how did people generally think of the environment? a. As a beautiful natural resource that needed to be protected from actions that harmed its beauty b. As nature, including wildlife, trees, oceans, rivers, and mountains c. In terms of how natural resources could be harnessed to meet the need for food, shelter, and recreation d. As resources that should be used in unlimited quantities to satisfy the need for shelter, food, and transportation e. As a resource that dictates how people should live their lives

Q: How has the Internet and other technology affected productivity and trust in the workplace?

Q: What is cloning and what are its possible applications?

Q: What is the future outlook for biotechnology?

Q: What is TRUSTe and how does it work?

Q: How successful have privacy policies been in ensuring consumers that websites are safe?

Q: Explain how access to high-speed broadband connections can create high-tech "haves" and "have-nots."

Q: How could dramatic shifts in the acceleration and innovations derived from technology spur imbalances in social existence?

Q: A technology assessment will help a firm do all of the following except a. allow managers to estimate whether the benefits of adopting a specific technology outweigh the costs to the firm and to society. b. help companies ensure compliance with government regulations related to technology. c. assist managers in evaluating their firm's performance and to chart strategic courses of action to respond to new technologies. d. help the organization understand social and ethical issues relating to technology and develop appropriate and responsible responses to them. e. meet all of the stakeholders' needs and desires concerning the technology used by the firm.

Q: What is the current trend concerning monitoring employee communications in the workplace? a. Few companies are monitoring unacceptable uses of technology by their employees because these abuses are nearly impossible to detect. b. Many companies are now monitoring employee communications including phone calls, e-mails, and Internet usage. c. The courts have ruled that monitoring employee communications, such as phone calls and e-mails, is unconstitutional. d. Fewer companies are monitoring employee communications because its sends a message of a lack of trust. e. Companies are cutting back on the number of employees having access to computers in order to limit abuses of the Internet and e-mail.

Q: Why is it difficult for the government to hire and retain forensic computer experts to control the activities of cyber criminals? a. There are less than fifty high-caliber forensic computer experts in the country. b. The government is not concerned with these issues and leaves the control up to the private sector. c. The government does not have the jurisdiction to seek out and punish those who commit online crimes. d. The highly skilled experts are hired away by firms who pay much higher salaries than the government. e. Crimes committed online seem mild and unimportant compared to other types of white-collar crime.

Q: Which of the following statements best describes the current view on genetically modified foods? a. GM foods have gained wide acceptance throughout the world as people realize the improvements that can be made from genetic modifications. b. Many important companies in the United States and abroad are requiring the suppliers of their food to use genetic modification in order to decrease prices. c. Although a small group of consumers are boycotting GM foods, most countries have widely adopted and encouraged their development. d. Several countries have opposed GM foods, and some large companies have stopped using them in their products. e. Nearly all countries are banning the use of GM products.

Q: What is another name for a genetically modified crop? a. Transgenic crop b. Altered crop c. High-yield crop d. FlavSavr e. Improved crop

Q: Which of the following is one of the arguments for banning human cloning? a. Cloning has the potential to revolutionize the treatment of diseases and create replacement organs. b. Cloning is unethical because it involves humans meddling with nature. c. When cloning is used to treat a patient, an actual human must be destroyed. d. Human cloning does not have the potential to enhance human life in any way and therefore is not worth the money it costs. e. Banning human cloning could threaten important research, especially in the areas of infertility and cancer treatment.

Q: What is the study of ethical issues in the fields of medical treatment and research---including medicine, nursing, law, philosophy, and theology---called? a. Medical ethics b. Genome project c. Bioethics d. Biotechnology e. Genetic ethics

Q: What does the Federal Trademark Dilution Act of 1995 require? a. The law reinforces every person's right to use company trademarks for free. b. It requires individuals who registered web addresses with companies' names to relinquish their rights to these URLs. c. It allows cybersquatters to retain sites related to trademarks since they made the first claim to these particular URLs. d. It decreases companies' rights to protect and defend online actions that threaten their copyrights. e. It prevents Internet users, both individuals and companies, from placing links containing another company's trademark without express consent.

Q: What are the ideas and creative materials developed to solve problems, carry out applications, educate, and entertain others collectively known as? a. Intellectual property b. Patents c. Copyrights d. Personal property e. Creative assets

Q: Which of the following statements best describes international initiatives on privacy? a. Although many other countries have regulations and restrictions on privacy and the Internet, none are as stringent as those in the United States. b. Russia is at the forefront of privacy regulation and has taken drastic measures to protect the privacy of its citizens within Russia and around the world. c. Japan has demonstrated relatively little concern about protecting the privacy of its citizens and has few regulations about online privacy. d. In the international realm of privacy regulation, the United States is not the strictest but does attempt to protect its citizens' privacy. e. In general, European privacy regulations are less stringent than those of the United States and Japan.

Q: What growing area of concern occurs when criminals obtain personal information that allows them to impersonate someone else and use their credit to obtain financial accounts and make purchases? a. Illegal impersonation b. False pretenses c. Identity theft d. Consumer fraud e. Privacy violation

Q: Which of the following is not something that can be done with a cookie? a. Track how often a user visits a particular website b. Match Internet addresses with specific geographical locations c. Provide customized website content for a user d. Collect and store personal information about users e. Record the sequence in which a customer views pages of a website

Q: Which of the following is a positive effect associated with the ease of collecting personal data online? a. Because of the ease of access, unauthorized use of personal information may occur. b. Old or inaccurate data may misclassify a customer and in return, poorer customer service is received. c. Customers may receive special offers based on their past purchases with companies that are specifically tailored to their interests. d. Companies are able to sell information collected online to advertisers and others without the consumer's consent. e. New technology makes it more difficult for law enforcement agents to catch criminals and for banks to detect fraud.

Q: When sellers bid on their own items in order to heighten interest in an online auction, this is known as ____ bidding. a. competitive b. illegal c. shill d. fraudulent e. owner's

Q: Which of the following statements is true about credit-card fraud? a. Because of high-tech security, credit-card fraud online occurs less frequently than through mail-order catalogs. b. Traditional storefront retailers have the worst problems with credit card fraud because most allow you to swipe the credit card yourself. c. Credit-card fraud is not a major issue for consumers who shop online. d. Credit-card fraud is a major issue for businesses and consumers. e. Credit-card fraud is 100 percent preventable through increased security measures, but companies have not used resources to prevent this type of fraud.

Q: To what time period can the origins of the Internet be traced back? a. 1930s b. 1950s c. 1970s d. 1980s e. 1990s

Q: ____ involves the sharing of business information, maintaining business relationships, and conducting business transactions by means of telecommunications networks. a. Internet marketing b. Internet data interchange c. E-commerce d. Web-based relational approach e. Commerce online

Q: Among the highest-return investments a nation can make are investments in a. research and development. b. other nations. c. corporations. d. nonprofit organizations. e. foreign stock markets.

Q: What does the saying "technology has a self-sustaining nature" mean? a. People begin to rely on technology and cannot function without it. b. Technology acts as a catalyst to spur even faster development. c. Technology helps companies meet stakeholders' needs more efficiently. d. The money received from new technologies will fund additional future advances. e. Technology has become an indispensable aspect of life and society.

Q: What is our economy primarily based on today? a. Agriculture b. Manufacturing c. Hunting-gathering d. Services e. Information technology and services

Q: What does cause-related marketing do? a. Links corporate resources and knowledge to address broader social, customer, employee, and supplier problems and needs b. Ties an organization's product or service directly to a social concern c. Provides an opportunity to associate a company's name and brands to a particular sports event d. Consists of purposeful marketing that provides consumers with needed product information e. Creates a link between an environmental cause and the company as a whole