Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following best describes the importance of corporate philanthropy in the 1980s? a. The cost-cutting nature of businesses in this decade left corporate philanthropy as a low priority for most organizations. b. Many firms began to establish separate foundations to make donations to charitable causes during the 1980s. c. Most business leaders understood the benefits of well-managed corporate philanthropy initiatives and implemented formal programs. d. The public first began to question the role of business in society, and many individuals called for corporations to give back to society. e. Most companies took a haphazard approach to corporate philanthropy causing little good to come as a result.

Q: Which of the following examples best aligns a company's competencies and strategic goals with philanthropic activity? a. A local gas station has a program in which its employees are partnered with disadvantaged youths as mentors. b. Ben and Jerry's Homemade ice cream company donates a percentage of its pretax profits to support peace initiatives. c. The local telephone company donates money to the Youth Soccer Foundation to help pay for the upkeep of soccer fields and equipment. d. A hair salon donates one dollar of every haircut to support the local food bank's annual holiday food drive. e. Merck uses its pharmaceutical expertise to develop a drug to combat river blindness and donates millions of doses to poor countries.

Q: Which of the following best defines strategic philanthropy? a. The synergistic use of an organization's core competencies and resources to address key stakeholders' interests and to achieve both organizational and social benefits b. Donating financial resources to help social causes and the community in general c. Addressing the needs of various stakeholder groups through cooperative efforts intended to benefit the community and society d. Tying consumer purchases to the specific marketing objectives of a brand or product e. Any act of benevolence and goodwill, such as making gifts to charities, volunteering for community projects, and taking action to benefit others

Q: What is a "living wage"? a. Federal minimum wage that can be paid to employees b. Level of wages designed to help individuals live comfortably c. Average wage paid by a particular industry in a specific region d. Required wage to keep employees above the area's poverty level e. Ethical obligation to pay employees a reasonable wage

Q: Which of the following describes the contagion effect that can occur when one business moves into an area? a. New jobs will be created in the community, which will decrease unemployment and boost the overall economy. b. A move can signal to other firms that the area is a viable and attractive place for others to locate, and more businesses will follow. c. A move can signal to other firms that the area is congested and not worth entering. d. The community will be grateful to the company for locating within its limits and reward it with certain property tax benefits. e. The overall skill level of employees in the community will improve, which may lead other companies to recruit workers from this community.

Q: The organizational function dedicated to building and maintaining relationships and trust with the community is known as a. the social activity department. b. the marketing department. c. customer service. d. community relations. e. stakeholder management group.

Q: Which of the following provides the best description of the community stakeholder for an organization? a. The community to be concerned with is the immediate neighborhood where most of the organization's patrons live and work. b. The entire city in which the organization operates will be affected by the organization, and therefore this defines the community stakeholder. c. The entire county in which the organization is located is the community stakeholder because the impact of the organization reaches beyond the city to the entire county. d. The community aspect of the stakeholder model includes the entire region in which the company operates. e. The community includes those members of society who are aware of, concerned by, or in some way affected by the operations and outputs of the organization.

Q: What are some of the benefits a company receives by encouraging its employees to participate in volunteer programs?

Q: Give an example of cause-related marketing and an example of strategic philanthropy.

Q: How can the traditional approach to corporate philanthropy be described?

Q: What is volunteerism, and who benefits from it?

Q: What economic impact does a company have on a community?

Q: What can a company do to become a neighbor of choice?

Q: You are the Director of Social Responsibility for a major athletic shoe and apparel company. Which of the following options would most closely fulfill the objectives of strategic social responsibility for your company? a. Donating athletic shoes to a professional athletic team in order to increase the company's exposure b. Allowing employees to volunteer at a local charity of choice on company time for one hour per week c. Giving athletic shoes and apparel to disadvantaged youths d. Having employees volunteer at a youth shelter and delivering athletic shoes for their sports programs e. Sponsoring a charity-oriented golf tournament by donating monetary funds to the cause

Q: In order to be considered "strategic," corporate philanthropy must be a. valuable to the community and society as a whole. b. aligned with the values of the employees in order to increase their motivation and satisfaction. c. related to the interests of the customers in order to sustain long-term, mutually beneficial relationships. d. aligned with the values, core competencies, and long-term plans of the organization. e. communicated to all stakeholders of the organization.

Q: What would be the best way for Anheuser-Busch to assist victims of a natural disaster in keeping with the philosophy of strategic philanthropy? a. Donate money to the victims of the natural disaster b. Build a new bottling facility in the area of the disaster to provide new employment opportunities c. Bottle drinking water and distribute it to the victims d. Send volunteers to rebuild homes that were destroyed in the natural disaster e. Provide beer and other alcoholic beverages to the victims of the natural disaster

Q: What is the main purpose of the "organize and design" step of the process for planning and implementing strategic philanthropy? a. Gaining the interest and support of management early on so as to ease the approval process in the future b. Deciding what resources and dollars should be spent on certain strategic philanthropy efforts c. Creating interest in all the company's stakeholders in order to increase their support of the strategic philanthropy process d. Collecting information covering the internal organization and programs that might intersect with the competencies of the company e. Classifying funding opportunities according to the level of need and alignment with organizational competencies

Q: What does the "engage" step of the process for planning and implementing strategic philanthropy consist of? a. Gaining the interest and support of management early on so as to ease the approval process in the future b. Deciding what resources and dollars should be spent on certain strategic philanthropy efforts c. Creating interest in all the company's stakeholders in order to increase their support of the strategic philanthropy process d. Collecting information covering the internal organization and programs that might intersect with the competencies of the company e. Classifying funding opportunities according to the level of need and alignment with organizational competencies

Q: Which of the following is not one of the steps in the process for planning and implementing strategic philanthropy? a. Engage b. Collect c. Research d. Organize and design e. Spend

Q: What is not a concern that top managers may have to deal with in regards to strategic philanthropy? a. Determining whether there are tax incentives for corporate giving b. Having to defend the company's commitment to charity to various stakeholder groups c. Showing support for the firm's philanthropic efforts d. Budgeting the resources required to manage philanthropic efforts e. Being well versed in the performance benefits of social responsibility

Q: Which of the following statements least demonstrates strategic philanthropy? a. A talk show geared toward mothers supports a children's foundation to enhance the social and cultural development of disadvantaged children b. A chemical company implements a vanpooling system to cut back on environmental pollution and also carefully designs its chemical processes to minimize environmental damage c. A healthcare-based company works with other healthcare systems to make health insurance available to residents who cannot afford it d. Employees at a telecommunications company are encouraged to serve food at a food kitchen in order to help the homeless e. A computer software company creates and funds technology-based learning centers nationwide to help underprivileged citizens learn about technology

Q: Which of the following is not one of the direct benefits associated with strategic philanthropy? a. Companies with a strategic approach to philanthropy experience rewards in the workplace. b. Companies receive a tax deduction on their charitable contributions. c. Companies may find their employee recruitment practices to be more effective and enhanced. d. Strategic philanthropy should ease government regulations on the company. e. Companies should experience enhanced customer loyalty.

Q: How could the value of employee volunteer programs be enhanced for a firm to better align these programs with strategic philanthropy goals? a. Volunteer programs could be oriented to benefit the immediate community surrounding the firm. b. Programs could be geared toward improving the morale of the employees who participate. c. Programs should emphasize synergies between employees' current and future job-related aptitudes and nonprofit needs. d. Volunteer programs should be mandatory for all employees so as to encourage all employees to think about social causes. e. Firms could heavily advertise their volunteer efforts to create a more favorable public image.

Q: What is one of the main weaknesses of cause-related marketing? a. Consumers do not see their contributions as really helping an important cause. b. Cause-related marketing activities have not shown potential to affect consumer buying patterns. c. They help companies become aware that supporting social causes can support business goals. d. Consumers have difficulty recalling exact philanthropic relationships between companies and causes. e. It promises donations to a specific cause that is important to company stakeholders.

Q: Which of the following is not an example of a cause-related marketing effort? a. Avon sells beauty products through its "pink ribbon" campaign and donates a percentage of the proceeds to fund breast cancer research. b. American Express donates a percentage of its credit card charges to the Statue of Liberty and Ellis Island Restoration Fund. c. Regis Hair Salons offers $10 haircuts for its "Clip for the Cure" campaign for which the proceeds went to cancer research. d. Bankers Trust Private Bank develops and introduces a "Wealth of Responsibility" program to assist wealthy families in planning for philanthropy. e. Sales from New Covent Garden's pea and ham soup were donated to help renovate a homeless shelter's charity kitchens.

Q: Why does Southwest Airlines formalize its commitment to customer service?

Q: What concerns about the right to privacy has the Internet raised?

Q: What does the "right to be heard" entail?

Q: How has consumerism affected public policy over the past four decades?

Q: "The customer is always right." Explain why this well-known saying is not really true.

Q: The Consumers Union tests products in its own laboratories and studies, then communicates the results a. in Good Housekeeping magazine. b. to manufacturers, who choose whether to publish the findings. c. to state and federal regulatory agencies. d. in Consumer Reports magazine. e. via weekly e-mail reports.

Q: Which of the following is typically not associated with false or bogus weight loss claims? a. Causes substantial weight loss by wearing it on the body or rubbing it into the skin b. Creates gradual weight loss through a balanced diet and exercise routine c. Enables the consumer to lose weight while sleeping d. Creates weight loss regardless of how much the consumer eats or drinks e. Causes weight loss of two pounds or more a week for a month or more without dieting or exercise

Q: The Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act requires home equity lenders to a. verbally disclose the interest rates associated with the mortgage loan. b. use a practice called "red lining," to determine those customers with the lowest risk of defaulting on the loan. c. employ loan officers who mirror the demographics of the majority of home buyers in the region. d. give consumers the right to dispute and correct inaccurate information on their credit reports. e. disclose, in writing, the borrower's rights, payment amounts, and the consequences of defaulting on the loan.

Q: Abstaining from using, purchasing, or dealing with an organization is known as a(n) a. avoidance. b. boycott. c. refusal. d. economic demonstration. e. pressurization.

Q: To whom should consumers turn first when exercising their right to seek redress? a. Federal Trade Commission b. Local Better Business Bureau c. Seller of the product/service d. Their attorney e. Consumer Protection Agency

Q: The Nutrition Labeling and Education Act of 1990 can be most closely attributed to which right of the Consumer Bill of Rights? a. Right to be heard b. Right to choose c. Right to safety d. Right to fair treatment e. Right to be informed

Q: What impact has information services and the Internet had on consumers and businesses? a. They have shifted the balance of power between consumers and businesses because consumers are able to compare prices, read independent rankings, and obtain greater product knowledge. b. The Internet and other information services have not had a substantial impact on consumers and businesses. c. The balance of power between consumers and business has remained the same because businesses have obtained greater access to information about their competitors. d. Greater information services and the Internet have shifted power back to businesses since they can now obtain more information about their customers. e. Laws and regulations represent the influence businesses have on consumers and vice versa---whether or not information is more readily available does not impact the laws governing consumers' rights.

Q: The movement to protect consumers from an imbalance of power with business and to maximize consumer welfare in the marketplace is known as a. the consumer welfare movement. b. the Consumer Bill of Rights. c. consumerism. d. the consumer proactive movement. e. customer rights.

Q: Which of the following was not included in John F. Kennedy's Consumer Bill of Rights? a. Right to be heard b. Right to choose c. Right to safety d. Right to fair treatment e. Right to be informed

Q: How do product liability lawsuits in Japan compare with those in the United States? a. Product liability lawsuits are extremely common in Japan and occur much more frequently than in the United States. b. Product liability lawsuits are much more common in the United States than they are in Japan. c. The overall number of product liability suits in Japan is very similar to the number in the United States. d. Although both countries have high rates of product liability lawsuits, the United States usually has a few more than Japan. e. There has never been a product liability lawsuit in Japan because Japanese companies eliminate defects before selling products.

Q: Why did McDonald's start displaying warning signs that its coffee is hot after the famous lawsuit? a. As a friendly reminder to customers that coffee is in fact hot b. As a form of advertising that the coffee at McDonald's is always fresh c. To try to eliminate further injury and product liability d. Because the government ordered that these signs be posted e. So that customers would not think McDonald's was serving iced coffee

Q: Which area of law refers to a business's legal responsibility for the performance of its products? a. Lemon laws b. Product liability c. Warranties d. Strict accountability e. Product misuse

Q: Which of the following statements best describes the legal standards concerning advertising communication? a. There is no tolerance for any type of exaggeration. b. Companies are free to make claims about their products because consumers are expected to have common sense to distinguish between truth and fantasy. c. Scientific evidence is not helpful for substantiating claims that manufacturers make about their products. d. Companies can make false claims about products without fear of legal action because the FTC rarely takes action against companies in this situation. e. Although some exaggeration is tolerated, deceptive claims or claims that cannot be substantiated are likely to result in legal action.

Q: In what industry did Upton Sinclair expose atrocities, inhumane labor practices, and unsanitary conditions in his novel, The Jungle, which led the public to demand reform? a. Automobile b. Soft drink c. Textile d. Meatpacking e. Pharmaceutical

Q: Which government agency enforces regulations designed to protect the public from unreasonable risk of injury from consumer products? a. Federal Anti-Injury Institute b. Consumer Product Safety Commission c. Consumer Information Bureau d. Deceptive Trade Practices Commission e. Privacy Protection Agency

Q: Which division of the Federal Trade Commission works to protect consumers against unfair, deceptive, and fraudulent practices? a. Bureau of Consumer Protection b. Consumer Product Safety Commission c. Consumer Information Bureau d. Deceptive Trade Practices Commission e. Privacy Protection Agency

Q: If a consumer staged an accident in a store and then sought damages against the store for its poor safety standards, this customer has committed which fraudulent activity? a. Shoplifting b. Guile c. Duplicity d. Collusion e. Product misuse

Q: Which of the following most closely describes the relationship between consumers and businesses? a. They are fundamentally connected by an economic relationship that often leads to deeper attachment. b. All consumers are closely affiliated with the ethical principles the companies they buy from represent. c. The relationships between consumers and businesses are purely economic in nature through the exchange of value. d. There really is no relationship between businesses and consumers. e. "Let the buyer beware" describes the power that businesses now have over consumers.

Q: Consumers can best be described as a. those individuals who purchase many different products throughout their lives. b. customers of any given organization. c. every firm's most important stakeholder. d. those individuals who purchase, use, and dispose of products for personal and household use. e. those groups who purchase products from manufacturers and then improve the products and sell them to others.

Q: What is the promotion of environmentally friendly products called? a. Earth Day b. Green marketing c. Earth-friendly initiatives d. Planet protection e. Enviro-promotion

Q: Why would an organization strive to become an employer of choice?

Q: What is workplace diversity, and why might a firm embrace diversity?

Q: How is quid pro quo sexual harassment different from hostile work environment harassment?

Q: What are the three types of workplace violence?

Q: How can an individual employee potentially mitigate the onset and effects of downsizing?

Q: What are some issues to be considered before embarking on the downsizing process?

Q: Describe the transformation of the employee-employer contract over the past century.

Q: Which of the following is least important in becoming an employer of choice? a. The employer offers the highest pay in the industry. b. The employer values the human component of business. c. The employer maintains a proper balance between work and personal life. d. The employer provides opportunities for training and personal development. e. The employer provides competitive compensation and strong benefits.

Q: How does the level of job-related stress and fatigue in the United States generally compare to that in Japan? a. The United States experiences a much higher level of stress-related symptoms from work than does Japan. b. Due to the relatively slack work effort in both the United States and Japan, work-related stress and fatigue are uncommon. c. Both countries experience nearly the same high levels of work-related stress and fatigue problems. d. The overall work-related stress and fatigue levels in the United States are moderate compared to the high levels in Japan. e. Although they are quite comparable, the United States workers experience slightly more stress-related problems than Japanese workers.

Q: Which of the following is least likely to be an example of a work/life program arrangement? a. Satellite offices of a large company are opened in various locations around large cities to reduce the stress associated with long commutes employees must make to get to the downtown office. b. A mother needs to work approximately the same hours as school is in session so that she is able to take her children to school and pick them up from their after-school activities. c. An employee is allowed to take the one-week of vacation time he has earned. d. An employee is allowed to work from home three days a week during the hours that are most convenient for the employee. e. An employee is allowed to come into work early and leave early two days a week in order to attend his son's basketball games and daughter's soccer games.

Q: In the ACORN model for handling generational diversity in the workplace, the "N" stands for a. not limiting employees' right to speak out. b. noticing the problems when generations talk to one another. c. never forgetting that all employees are valuable. d. nourishing retention to keep the best employees. e. notifying people early of workplace reduction plans.

Q: Initiatives in workplace diversity focus on a. meeting the legal guidelines of equal opportunity. b. developing a workforce that is 50 percent men and 50 percent women. c. understanding the ways in which people from different generations communicate and make decisions. d. reducing lawsuits related to affirmative action. e. recruiting and retaining a diverse workforce as a business imperative.

Q: What is an employee who reports individual or corporate wrongdoing to either internal or external sources known as? a. Tattletale b. Ethics officer c. Whistle-blower d. Retaliator e. Hostile worker

Q: Which of the following situations may constitute quid pro quo sexual harassment? a. Many male employees of a company make repeated remarks about how men are more intelligent than women, which makes the environment difficult for female employees. b. A male coworker makes unwelcomed sexual advances toward a female coworker, which causes her to feel that her job is threatened. c. A female employee asks one of her subordinates out to dinner over and over again even though he always tells her no, and he is beginning to feel uncomfortable around her. d. A male manager suggests to one of his female employees that she will receive a raise if she wears shorter skirts and works "overtime" once a week. e. A male employee often disseminates e-mails of a sexual nature to his coworkers that creates an awkward atmosphere for a couple of his female coworkers.

Q: Which of the following categories of employment discrimination is not covered by Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964? a. National origin b. Gender c. Religion d. Disabilities e. Race

Q: The design, arrangement, and use of equipment to maximize productivity and minimize fatigue and physical discomfort are known as a. comfort engineering. b. chiropractics. c. preventative health. d. massagonics. e. ergonomics.

Q: What is the main purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration? a. To conduct surprise inspections of businesses to see what laws they are violating b. To oversee the regulations intended to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for all employees. c. To help employees seek restitution if they have suffered as a result of poor working conditions d. To threaten all companies with the possibility of fines and other punishment if any employees are injured or killed e. To improve the overall quality of the workforce in the United States and to increase global competitiveness

Q: What does the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 (FMLA) require of certain employers? a. Provide 12 weeks of paid leave to an employee with a special family or medical circumstance. b. Allow employees up to a year of unpaid leave to attend to a family medical emergency without the loss of their jobs. c. Provide all employees with 10 weeks of job-protected leave for certain family and medical emergencies. d. Provide up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave to eligible employees for certain family and medical reasons. e. Provide 12 weeks of leave at 50 percent of the employee's normal salary for a family or medical reason.

Q: What did the Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) of 1974 do? a. It set uniform minimum standards to assure that employee benefit plans are established and maintained in a fair and financially sound manner. b. It mandated that companies create a financially sound employee pension plan for full- and part-time employees. c. It developed standards for the minimum wages a company could pay its employees in order to fulfill Social Security retirement obligations. d. It detailed what benefits a company must offer its employees. e. It implemented a plan for job-sharing and flextime arrangements with employees who are paid on an hourly basis.

Q: Which of the following types of employees must be paid for overtime work under governmental labor standards and pay provisions? a. Administrators b. Outside sales people c. Secretaries d. Executives e. Professionals

Q: What concept governed employment up until the early 1900s? a. Master-servant b. Employment at will c. Vesting d. FLSA e. Labor unions

Q: Which of the following is not likely to be an effect of workforce reduction? a. Employee compensation usually increases when fewer employees are working for a company. b. Job satisfaction and loyalty often decrease after a company experiences a workforce reduction. c. Former employees may begin receiving unemployment benefits. d. Remaining employees begin to take on more responsibilities and workload. e. Remaining employees are anxious about job security after they survive a round of layoffs.

Q: Which of the following is an example of external factors affecting the perception of a firm's decision to downsize? a. The downsizing corporation does not offer any kind of career or employment assistance to the employees that are being laid off. b. A company begins assisting its employees who will be affected by the workforce reduction as soon as it is aware of potential reductions. c. Other companies in the area quickly hire the employees laid off from the downsizing company. d. The company considers how it will function after the workforce reduction has taken place. e. External factors do not play a role in the perception of a company's downsizing decision; only internal factors are important.

Q: Which of the following terms is not commonly used to describe the elimination of employment positions? a. Workforce reduction b. Rightsizing c. Downsizing d. Erosion e. Layoffs

Q: What experiences effectively ended the loyalty and commitment-based contract that employees had developed with employers? a. Employers took steps to cut costs through workforce reduction as the demands for global competitiveness increased. b. Employers began to say that employees were not that valuable to the company's success. c. Employees' desire for job security changed, and they no longer had a psychological need for security. d. Employers began to offer work-life balance perks to lure talented workers away from their current employers, and loyalty suffered. e. Employers felt that employees were not living up to the conditions of their psychological contracts.

Q: By the 1980s, what type of analogy was being used to describe the workplace? a. Master-servant b. Athletic team c. Social club d. Prison e. Family

Q: In which decade was much of the employment law in the United States enacted? a. 1890s b. 1930s c. 1850s d. 1970s e. 1990s

Q: Until the early 1900s, how could the relationship between employer and employee best be characterized? a. Teamwork b. Master-servant c. Father-son d. Mother-daughter e. Supportive

Q: What is the psychological contract between an employee and his or her employer? a. Terms of employment including the salary and benefits associated with an employee's position b. Employee's perception about how the company should treat him or her as an employee c. Beliefs, perceptions, expectations, and obligations that comprise an agreement between individuals and their organizations d. Formal contract between individuals and their employer that details the beliefs and obligations of both parties e. Contract an employee signs to verify that he or she is of sound mind to serve in the capacity outlined by his or her job title

Q: Describe each group in the 10-40-40-10 model of Variation in Employee Conduct. What does the model indicate about managing the ethical culture of an organization?