Q&A Hero

Q: Collectivists are more interested in demonstrations of concern and working through third parties to resolve disputes, whereas individualists are more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly.

Q: The conflict-handling intention of compromising involves finding a solution that allows both parties' goals to be completely achieved.

Q: Supporting someone else's opinion despite your reservations about it is an example of collaborating.

Q: The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is assertive and cooperative.

Q: During the behavior stage of the conflict process, the parties decide what the conflict is about.

Q: Studies exploring the impact of increasing cultural diversity in a workforce found that ethnically diverse groups produce less effective and less feasible ideas as compared to the ideas produced by all-Caucasian groups.

Q: The potential for conflict increases when too much communication takes place.

Q: Recent research shows that task management among top management teams was negatively associated with their performance, whereas conflict lower in the organization was positively associated with group performance.

Q: Relationship conflicts are almost always dysfunctional.

Q: Open and emotionally stable teams can put task conflict in perspective and focus on how the variance in ideas can help solve the problem rather than letting it degenerate into relationship conflicts.

Q: The interactionist view of conflict proposes that all conflicts are good.

Q: The traditional view of conflict recognizes that a minimal level of conflict can help keep a group viable, self-critical, and creative.

Q: The two parties eventually agree to ask Sam Spade, an attorney and trusted friend, to help them informally to solve their problem. Sam's role is that of a(n) ________. A) mediator B) arbitrator C) conciliator D) consultant E) plaintiff

Q: The home buyer wants to bring in a third party who will have the authority to dictate an agreement. This person will be a(n) ________. A) mediator B) arbitrator C) conciliator D) consultant E) plaintiff

Q: Megatron wants to bring in a neutral third party who will facilitate a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, suggesting alternatives, and the like. This person is known as a(n) ________. A) mediator B) arbitrator C) plaintiff D) consultant E) bailor

Q: In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) ________. A) plaintiff B) arbitrator C) consultant D) conciliator E) executor

Q: What factor would most likely increase the negative impact of an arbitration session? A) limited options of the arbitrator B) heavy-handedness of the arbitrator C) compulsory nature of the arbitration D) voluntary nature of the arbitration E) establishment of an agreement that is nonbinding

Q: Which of the following methods of third-party negotiation always results in a settlement? A) mediation B) consultancy C) arbitration D) conciliation E) execution

Q: In which of the following situations is mediation most likely to be effective? A) The conflict between the parties involved in mediation is at a moderate level. B) One of the parties involved in the negotiation perceives the mediator as biased. C) There is a large gap between the target points of both the parties. D) One of the parties involved in the negotiation perceives the mediator as coercive. E) None of the parties is willing to disclose its BATNA.

Q: A(n) ________ is a neutral third party who facilitates a negotiated solution by using reasoning, persuasion, and suggestions for alternatives. A) plaintiff B) mediator C) agent D) consultant E) executor

Q: Xanadu Industries manufactures and sells the same calipers as Utopia Industries. Employee wages account for 35 percent of the cost of manufacturing calipers at both Xanadu Industries and Utopia Industries. Xanadu Industries is seeking a competitive advantage over Utopia Industries. Richard, the manager put in charge of devising a strategy to meet this end, suggests lowering employee wages. This leads to a grave conflict between Richard and the labor union. Which of the following, if true, would suggest that the labor union will accept Richard's suggestion to lower the wages? A) As they make a large number of precision instruments, caliper manufacturers receive huge volume discounts on raw materials. B) Utopia Industries recently set up a new manufacturing facility in the vicinity. C) Xanadu Industries has taken away 20 percent of Utopia Industries' business over the last year. D) Utopia Industries pays its employees, on average, 10 percent more than does Xanadu Industries. E) Many people who work for manufacturing plants live in areas in which the manufacturing plant is the only source of employment.

Q: Stratford Inc. is a company that hires culturally diverse people to perform Shakespearean plays for high school students. The company employs actors and actresses from all over the world. The actors and actresses have joined together to ask the company for higher salaries. The employees are struggling over deciding who will negotiate for them. Which of the following statements is true pertaining to the effect of individual differences on negotiations? A) Women tend to negotiate better outcomes than men. B) Extraverts tend to be very successful in distributive bargaining. C) People who are highly interested in having positive relationships with other people are poor negotiators. D) Individuals who score high on agreeableness dimension tend to be very successful in distributive bargaining. E) Positive moods and emotions negatively affect integrative bargaining.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding negotiation outcomes? A) Overall agreeableness is weakly related to negotiation outcomes. B) Overall agreeableness is strongly related to negotiation outcomes. C) Overall agreeableness is weakly related to negotiation outcomes only when the situation is stressful. D) Overall agreeableness is strongly related to negotiation outcomes only when the situation is stressful. E) Overall agreeableness is unrelated to negotiation outcomes.

Q: In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is included in the closure and implementation step? A) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) justifying your original demands C) formalizing the agreement that has been worked out D) determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation E) exchange of the initial proposals or demands

Q: During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties have the actual discussion to hash out an agreement? A) preparation and planning B) definition of ground rules C) closure and implementation D) bargaining and problem-solving E) integration of preferences

Q: Bill is negotiating for the labor union. Today, he is presenting the evidence and papers that demonstrate the average wages in the area, the cost of healthcare for the average worker, and a pie graph demonstrating how these costs affect the new salary request. Which phase of the negotiation process is Bill currently in? A) preparation and planning B) definition of ground rules C) clarification and justification D) bargaining and problem solving E) closure and implementation

Q: In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the definition of ground rules step? A) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement B) determining time constraints, if any, applicable to negotiation C) justifying your original demands D) formalizing the agreement that has been worked out E) determining the history leading up to the negotiation

Q: During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or demands? A) preparation and planning B) definition of ground rules C) clarification and justification D) bargaining and problem solving E) integration of preferences

Q: In a negotiation process, which of the following activities is most likely to be included in the preparation and planning step? A) justifying your original demands B) determining your best alternative to a negotiated agreement C) determining where the negotiation will take place D) designing procedures for implementing the agreement that has been worked out E) exchange of the initial proposals or demands

Q: Your ________ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement. A) BATNA B) margin of error C) bid price D) asking price E) hidden value

Q: Which of the following is the first step in the negotiation process? A) definition of ground rules B) clarification and justification C) preparation and planning D) bargaining and problem solving E) closure and implementation

Q: The management has decided to try to find a win-win solution to help both parties resolve their differences. Management is attempting to engage in ________ bargaining. A) integrative B) reflective C) surface D) distributive E) reformatory

Q: None of the parties involved in the dispute wants to reach a win-win agreement. They are each highly focused on their demands, which they would like to achieve, otherwise known as their ________ points. A) focal B) distribution C) resistance D) tolerance E) target

Q: As both sides agree that they are competing over a fixed amount of resources, each side feels that what one side wins, the other loses. Based on this information, we can say that the two sides are engaged in ________. A) conciliation B) distributive bargaining C) mediation D) integrative bargaining E) arbitration

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding integrative bargaining? A) Integrative bargaining leaves one party a loser. B) Integrative bargaining is used in labor-management negotiations most of the time. C) Integrative bargaining focuses on long-term relationships. D) Integrative bargaining operates under zero-sum conditions. E) Integrative bargaining involves low information sharing.

Q: During a negotiation, making an initial offer leads to the ________ bias. A) self-serving B) framing C) attributional D) anchoring E) belief

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding distributive bargaining? A) It operates under zero-sum conditions. B) It focuses on long-term relationships. C) It involves high information sharing. D) It attempts to create a win-win solution. E) It is rarely used in labor-management negotiations.

Q: In case of distributive bargaining, the ________ point marks the lowest outcome that is acceptable-the point below which the party would break off negotiations rather than accept a less favorable settlement. A) resistance B) tolerance C) target D) focal E) distribution

Q: In the case of a distributive bargaining, the ________ point indicates what a person would like to achieve out of the negotiation. A) resistance B) distribution C) target D) bargaining E) focus

Q: Karl is the labor union negotiator. Today, he is meeting with the top management to discuss the new five-year contract, including wages and benefits. This labor-management negotiation over wages is most likely to use ________ bargaining. A) integrative B) reflective C) distributive D) evaluative E) associative

Q: ________ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a fixed amount of goods or services. A) Distributive B) Integrative C) Reflective D) Affective E) Conjunctive

Q: All of the following are benefits of conflict in organizations except ________. A) increased self-evaluation and change B) increased groupthink C) increased creativity and innovation D) increased curiosity among group members E) increased opportunity to air problems

Q: The two general approaches to negotiation are ________ bargaining and ________ bargaining. A) emotional; rational B) affective; reflective C) distributive; integrative D) formal; informal E) legal; restrictive

Q: The terms negotiation and ________ are used interchangeably. A) win-lose B) bargaining C) collaboration D) accommodation E) compromise

Q: Which of the following terms best describes the process that occurs when two or more parties decide how to allocate scarce resources? A) integration B) association C) negotiation D) unionization E) differentiation

Q: A collectivist Chinese manager is most likely to use which of the following techniques for conflict management? A) direct confrontation B) authoritative command C) avoiding D) pressurizing E) competing tactics

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding negotiation that takes place in a collectivist culture? A) Collectivists are less likely to seek to preserve relationships and promote the good of the group as a whole than individualists. B) Collectivists are more likely to confront differences of opinion directly and openly than individualists. C) Collectivist cultures see people as autonomous, not as people deeply embedded in social situations. D) Compared to individualists, collectivists are less likely to see offers from their counterparts as unfair and to reject them. E) The method of conflict management preferred by collectivist managers is competing.

Q: Conflict is dysfunctional when it ________. A) provides a medium to release tension B) reduces group cohesiveness C) fosters an environment of self-evaluation D) provides a means for expressing frustration E) leads to change

Q: Which of the following conflict management techniques involves designating a critic to purposely argue against the majority positions held by the group? A) altering the structural variables B) altering the human variable C) bringing in outsiders D) exercising authoritative command E) appointing a devil's advocate

Q: Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique? A) expansion of resources B) compromise C) bringing in outsiders D) exercising authoritative command E) problem solving

Q: According to a newly added office smoking regulation, only employees who have an enclosed office may smoke at their desks. This leads to a major conflict between various employees as virtually all employees with enclosed offices are higher-level managers and all other employees lack enclosed offices. Therefore, the lower-level employees who smoke argue that they should be offered enclosed offices. Which of the following, if true, strengthens the employees' argument? A) The company is a zealous supporter of the "Kick the Butt" campaign-a corporate anti-smoking campaign. B) Higher-level managers, who have enclosed offices, are willing to share their offices with-lower level employees. C) The smoking regulations allow all employees who smoke an equal opportunity to do so, regardless of an employee's job level. D) Employees at the higher level, who do not smoke, do not have enclosed offices. E) The company has a limited budget for infrastructure modifications.

Q: The division manager at Xperience Inc. wants to replace the SAP ERP currently used in his division with Epicor ERP as it costs 30 percent less to train new staff in Epicor ERP. But this leads to a conflict with the general manager, who insists that they can simply hire only people who already know how to use SAP ERP. Which of the following, if true, weakens the general manager's objection to the replacement of SAP ERP with Epicor ERP? A) Currently all employees in the company are required to attend workshops on how to use SAP ERP. B) Once employees learn how to use an ERP system, they tend to change employers more readily than before. C) Experienced users of SAP ERP command much higher salaries than do prospective employees who have no experience in the use of any ERP. D) The average productivity of employees in the company is below the average productivity of the employees of its competitors. E) The high costs of updates and upgrades make Epicor ERP more expensive to maintain than SAP ERP.

Q: A conflict-intensity continuum has "annihilatory conflict" at the upper end and "no conflict" at the lower end. In the context of this conflict-intensity continuum, which of the following statements is true of conflict intensities? A) Aggressive physical attacks fall in the lower range of the conflict-intensity continuum. B) Conflicts that reach the lower ranges of the conflict-intensity continuum are almost always dysfunctional. C) Strikes, riots, and wars fall in the lower range of the conflict-intensity continuum. D) In cases of annihilatory conflict, there is overt questioning or challenging of others. E) Functional conflicts are typically confined to the lower range of the conflict-intensity continuum.

Q: In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible? A) outcomes B) intentions C) incompatibility D) behavior E) personalization

Q: Which of the following conflict-handling intentions involves accepting a solution that provides incomplete satisfaction of both parties' concerns? A) collaborating B) compromising C) avoiding D) competing E) accommodating

Q: Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is assertive and uncooperative? A) compromising B) avoiding C) competing D) collaborating E) accommodating

Q: Macy does not like a few of the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she discussed the items with the team and told them that she realized she was in the minority and that she would adapt the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. This type of conflict-handling intention is called ________. A) negotiating B) accommodating C) collaborating D) compromising E) competing

Q: A party who seeks to appease an opponent may be willing to place the opponent's interests above his or her own, sacrificing to maintain the relationship. We refer to this conflict-handling intention as ________. A) collaborating B) avoiding C) compromising D) competing E) accommodating

Q: Luke's cubicle neighbor Leia, though an understanding and great co-worker, talks loudly on the phone. Luke gets annoyed every time Leia's phone rings, but he has decided it's simply not worth the trouble to talk to her about it. Luke's conflict-handling intention is called ________. A) competing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising E) collaborating

Q: The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is ________. A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) reflective and assertive

Q: Which of the following conflict-handling intentions is unassertive and uncooperative? A) competing B) collaborating C) avoiding D) compromising E) accommodating

Q: The conflict-handling intention of collaborating is ________. A) assertive and uncooperative B) assertive and cooperative C) unassertive and uncooperative D) unassertive and cooperative E) affective and reflective

Q: ________ is a conflict-handling technique in which the parties in a conflict each desire to satisfy fully the concerns of all parties. A) Collaborating B) Competing C) Accommodating D) Avoiding E) Compromising

Q: When one person seeks to satisfy his or her own interests regardless of the impact on the other parties to the conflict, that person is using the conflict-handling intention of ________. A) competing B) avoiding C) accommodating D) compromising E) collaborating

Q: Assertiveness indicates the degree to which ________. A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns E) the parties are willing to involve a third party in conflict resolution

Q: The conflict-handling techniques are characterized by two dimensions, cooperativeness and assertiveness. Cooperativeness indicates the degree to which ________. A) one party attempts to satisfy his or her own concerns B) one party attempts to suppress the conflict C) the parties attempt to find a win-win solution D) one party attempts to satisfy the other party's concerns E) the parties are willing to involve a third party in conflict resolution

Q: ________ is the third stage in the conflict process and it intervenes between people's perceptions and their overt behavior. A) Potential for opposition B) Intention C) Cognition D) Attribution E) Behavioral manifestation

Q: The ________ stage of the conflict process is important because it's where conflict issues tend to be defined. A) potential opposition B) cognition and personalization C) intention D) behavior E) reaction and transference

Q: Stage II of the conflict process deals with the conflict being ________. A) perceived and felt B) apparent and experienced C) expressed and resolved D) analyzed E) internalized

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding conflict? A) The smaller the group, the greater the likelihood of conflict. B) The less specialized the activities of the group, the greater the likelihood of conflict. C) People low in the personality traits of disagreeableness, neuroticism, or self-monitoring are more likely to engage in a conflict. D) Diversity of goals among groups is a major source of conflict. E) As the ambiguity about where responsibility for actions lies decreases, the potential for conflict increases.

Q: Conditions that can create conflicts can be classified into three categories. Which of the following is one of these three categories that includes variables such as jurisdictional clarity, member-goal compatibility, and leadership styles? A) communication B) structure C) personal variables D) group interactions E) process variables

Q: Matt works as a sales representative at Tandem Industries, which manufactures and sells bicycles. He's the best salesman on the floor, but he also receives the highest number of customer complaints for late deliveries. Which of the following, if true, best explains this situation? A) The company uses enterprise solutions to manage inventory. B) The company's manufacturing facility is functioning at optimum capacity. C) The company's sales and logistics functions are tightly integrated. D) The company keeps inventory levels low in order to reduce costs. E) The company has an efficient credit verification process.

Q: When your work group disagrees, the disagreements usually concern how the group's work should be accomplished. The type of conflict experienced by your group is known as a ________ conflict. A) task B) relationship C) process D) traditional E) reactive

Q: You decide to do more research on the view that conflict should be encouraged as a means to achieve change and innovation. This view is termed ________. A) the traditional view B) the human relations view C) the interactionist view D) the acceptance view E) the promotional view

Q: If you support the idea that conflict should be eliminated, you are supporting which of the following views of conflict? A) the traditional view B) the human relations view C) the interactionist view D) the moderated acceptance view E) the optimistic view

Q: Conflict between two people is called ________ conflict. A) intragroup B) bilateral C) intergroup D) dyadic E) dual

Q: In a negotiation between a man and a woman, we would expect the woman to ________ than the man. A) act more assertively B) show higher self-interest C) be more accommodating D) place a higher value on the economic outcome E) be more proactive in getting negotiations underway

Q: Mike and Keith are on the same team; they work well with other people in the same team but don't get along with each other. This type of conflict can best be described as ________. A) intragroup B) bilateral C) intergroup D) dyadic E) dual

Q: Which of the following is not true regarding gender differences in negotiations? A) Men and women negotiate differently. B) Men value status more than women. C) Women value compassion and altruism more than men. D) Men place a higher value on economic outcomes than women. E) Women place a lower value on relationship outcomes than men.

Q: Conflicts related to how the work gets done are called ________ conflicts. A) communication B) task C) job D) relationship E) process