Q&A Hero

Q: Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is called ________ conflict. A) job B) task C) relationship D) process E) communication

Q: According to the interactionist view, ________ conflicts support the goals of the group and improve its performance. A) formal B) informal C) functional D) evaluative E) reactive

Q: According to the interactionist's perspective, a group that functions without conflict is ________. A) living up to behavioral standards B) prone to becoming static and apathetic C) the most productive D) most likely to be responsive to the need for change and innovation E) a rare phenomenon

Q: According to the ________ view of conflict, conflict can be a positive force in a group and some conflict is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively. A) resolution focused B) traditional C) managed D) interactionist E) transactional

Q: According to the traditional view of conflict, all conflict is ________. A) harmful and must be avoided B) natural and helps generate discussion C) necessary and improves creativity of a group D) healthy and improves productivity E) rational and cannot be avoided

Q: Conservationists have had a perpetual conflict with the government of the United States over the fast and rampant depletion of Earth's natural resources. They argue that the United States must reduce its consumption level significantly to rectify this problem. Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conservationists' argument? A) The United States has been conserving forests for several years. B) Most countries have not taken any measures to reduce their consumption levels of natural resources. C) There are several countries that have more requirements for resources than the United States. D) The United States accounts for one-third of the total world resource consumption. E) New resource deposits are constantly being discovered.

Q: ________ is defined as a process that begins when one party perceives another party has or is about to negatively affect something the first party cares about. A) Problem solving B) Assessment C) Conflict D) Negotiation E) Collective bargaining

Q: Explain impression management and discuss which impression management techniques are most effective in an interview.

Q: Define sexual harassment and identify ways managers can protect themselves and their employees from it.

Q: What is impression management? Who is more likely to engage in impression management?

Q: Discuss how power affects people and consider whether power is corruptive.

Q: What are defensive behaviors? Provide three examples of defensive behaviors and explain why an employee would engage in the behavior.

Q: What are the various individual factors that make a person more likely to engage in political behavior?

Q: Define political behavior and explain its features.

Q: How does reward power contribute to sexual harassment?

Q: Discuss the effectiveness of various influence tactics.

Q: Differentiate between rational persuasion and inspirational appeals in terms of their operation and direction of influence.

Q: What power tactics can employees use to translate their power bases into specific actions and how does each one work?

Q: Explain expert power with reference to the dimensions of importance, scarcity, and nonsubstitutability.

Q: List and discuss the bases of formal power.

Q: Contrast leadership and power.

Q: Define power.

Q: In countries that are more politically unstable, employees seem to demonstrate greater tolerance of intense political processes in the workplace

Q: Self-promotion works well as an impression management technique for interviews as well as performance evaluations.

Q: When the production manager at CalTrack was asked to provide reasons for the delay in the last batch of stock to be produced for the month, he clearly stated that this was the result of one of his front-level managers taking two days off and that the fault was not his. The manager is using buffing as a defensive behavior here.

Q: Under the zero-sum approach, any gain one person or group achieves has to come at the expense of another person or group.

Q: Using a single outcome measure is recommended when designing a performance evaluation system.

Q: The Machiavellian personality is characterized by the will to manipulate and the desire for power.

Q: The low self-monitor is more sensitive to social cues, exhibits higher levels of social conformity, and is more likely to be skilled in political behavior than the high self-monitor.

Q: Limited resources is one of the major reasons for the development of organizational politics.

Q: Whistle-blowing is not considered to be a political behavior.

Q: The political behavior required of employees is specified in the job requirements.

Q: Sexual harassment is more likely to occur when there are small power differentials.

Q: Unwanted physical touching is an overt form of sexual harassment.

Q: People with high political skills are able to exert their influence without others detecting it.

Q: Power tactics that emphasize formal power are personal and inspirational appeals, rational persuasion, and consultation.

Q: Dale Fisher is the manager of one branch of a retail chain. He often speaks with his customer service attendants about the value they bring to the company and encourages them to continue doing so. He knows that this approach of enhancing the worth of these executives and shaping their aspirations to do well is a more effective approach than using warnings and ultimatums. Dale is using the power tactic of an inspirational appeal here.

Q: According to the general dependence postulate, the greater B's dependence on A, the more power B has over A.

Q: People from collectivistic countries tend to see power in personalized terms and as a legitimate means of advancing their personal ends, while those in individualistic countries see power in social terms and as a legitimate means of helping others.

Q: Expert power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.

Q: The coercive power base depends on fear of the negative results from failing to comply.

Q: Unlike power, leadership requires some degree of goal compatibility.

Q: Victor Ortiz was a successful and popular manager at the marketing division of a consumer goods company. Many attributed the company's immense success in the last two years to Victor's highly creative marketing plans, which cost the company very little but increased the visibility of its products. He also effectively tied up with new retail chains so the demand for their products grows as the new retail chains grow. Recently, a subordinate alleged that Victor had sexually harassed her, and stories of similar allegations made against him in the past resurfaced. The situation was laid to rest when Victor made an appearance with the victim by his side claiming that the allegations were baseless as he was romantically involved with her. Though this announcement did not convince people, the allegations against Victor were withdrawn. From the information provided in this scenario, this outcome can be explained by the fact that ________. A) Victor has a high degree of referent power B) Victor has enough power to get away with his misdeeds C) Victor has abided by the standards of equity and justice D) Victor has used a defensive impression management technique E) Victor has used scapegoating to free himself from the charges

Q: Which of the following can be used to understand how power and politics in an organization can help you achieve your career goals? A) counseling B) power base relationships C) political mapping D) power struggles E) equity positioning

Q: In the last month, Stacey, an intelligent and astute employee, has finished only half the work she was scheduled to complete. In addition, she has been taking frequent leaves, citing her ill health as the reason, but her manager suspects she has been playing truant. When the manager confronted her about her pending work, Stacey gave excuses: the work was time-consuming, she was unwell, and it was not a high-priority project in the first place. In this scenario, Stacey is using a(n) ________ impression management technique. A) self-focused B) assertive C) aggressive D) defensive E) ingratiation-based

Q: Winston Mayer is a sales manager for a large company producing beverages and ready-to-eat meals. Winston is often seen working late and on weekends although the company stipulates a five-day workweek. Winston justifies his working extra by claiming that "in sales, one cannot afford to waste a minute" and he is often condescending when subordinates take their allotted time off. He frequently speaks to his manager about the deals he finalizes when he is working beyond the normal working hours to prove his point. From the information provided, we can say that Winston is using ________ as an impression management technique here. A) flattery B) exemplification C) favors D) apologies E) conformity

Q: Recently, Curtis Gibson had an interview for the position of a senior manager at a transit service. At the interview, the interviewer made a passing remark about how policies can make or break the best economy in the world. Immediately, Curtis launched into a discussion of how true the interviewer was, substantiating his claim with stories from real economies around the world. Similarly, when the interviewer suggested that Curtis work the earlier shift because, if selected, he would have to commute a significant bit to reach work, Curtis vehemently agreed, saying, "You couldn't be more right." Which of the following impression management techniques is Curtis using? A) favors B) exemplification C) enhancement D) self-promotion E) conformity

Q: Which of the following impression management techniques uses ingratiation? A) flattery B) exemplification C) enhancement D) conformity E) apologies

Q: Which of the following impression management techniques involves an individual admitting responsibility for an undesirable event and simultaneously seeking to get a pardon for the action? A) flattery B) favors C) apologies D) misrepresentation E) exemplification

Q: Which of the following is a self-focused impression management technique? A) flattery B) enhancement C) apologies D) excuses E) conformity

Q: Which of the following is an assertive impression management technique? A) conformity B) apologies C) self-promotion D) flattery E) buffing

Q: Which of the following differentiates between high self-monitors and low self-monitors? A) High self-monitors are more likely to use defensive impression management techniques, while low self-monitors are more likely to use self-focused impression management techniques. B) High self-monitors are commonly seen in collectivist cultures, while low self-monitors are commonly seen in individualist cultures. C) High self-monitors tend to mold their appearances and behavior to fit each situation, while low self-monitors tend to present images of themselves that are consistent with their personalities. D) High self-monitors prefer to avoid using power and politics at the workplace, while low self-monitors engage in a lot of politicking. E) High self-monitors have an external locus of control as they attribute successes or failures to luck and fate, while low self-monitors have an internal locus of control and believe that they control the outcomes.

Q: Which of the following is a defensive behavior that is used to avoid change? A) stalling B) scapegoating C) misrepresenting D) stretching E) preventing

Q: Which of the following defensive behaviors involves developing explanations that lessen one's responsibility for a negative outcome and apologizing to demonstrate remorse? A) scapegoating B) misrepresenting C) justifying D) overconforming E) stretching

Q: Daphne is one of the three project managers at Virgo Inc., an art and design studio. Raymond and Gabriel, the other two project managers, are unhappy working with Daphne as she always selects projects that suit her area of expertise and avoids projects which require more ambiguous work, have tight deadlines, and represent a low probability of success. Raymond and Gabriel feel that they deserve greater credit than Daphne for being open and accepting different work demands and situations, as opposed to Daphne, who always takes a conservative and risk-averse approach. Daphne is using the defensive behavior of ________ here. A) scapegoating B) ingratiating C) stalling D) retaliating E) playing safe

Q: Placing the blame for a negative outcome on external factors that are not entirely blameworthy is known as ________. A) scapegoating B) buffing C) stalling D) justifying E) overconforming

Q: Which of the following defensive behaviors involves rigorously documenting activity to project an image of competence and thoroughness? A) buffing B) justifying C) scapegoating D) stretching E) overconforming

Q: Buck passing is seen when an employee ________. A) avoids an unwanted task by falsely pleading ignorance or inability B) prolongs a task to give the appearance of being occupied C) documents his or her activity rigorously to project an image of competence and thoroughness D) develops explanations that lessen his or her responsibility for a negative outcome E) transfers responsibility for the execution of a task or decision to someone else

Q: Will Cears works at Mesner Corp. as a middle-level manager. Will recognizes that his firm is plagued by organizational politics. Since he is not good at playing games, he frequently engages in defensive behaviors in order to protect himself and his interests. Will is frustrated because he believes that he has little control over his environment and his environment is uncomfortable to him. He has had some success at establishing a sense of control for himself by appearing to be cooperative and supportive to his colleagues. However, he continues to hold his reservations against politicking and does not engage in it. This is an example of ________ in order to avoid action, blame, or change. A) buffing B) buck passing C) scapegoating D) misrepresenting E) stalling

Q: Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed ________. A) repressive behaviors B) defensive behaviors C) submissive behaviors D) impression management behaviors E) proactive behaviors

Q: Under the zero-sum approach, rewards are distributed such that ________. A) rewards are equal and do not increase or decrease with changes in profit margins B) rewards increase for all employees at an identical rate C) any drop in profits reduces the pay of employees by an identical amount D) amount allocated for rewards is variable E) rewards increase for a group at the expense of loss for another group

Q: To avoid politicking during performance evaluations, an organization should ________. A) create role ambiguity B) use democratic decision making C) use a single outcome measure D) use objective criteria E) allow a significant lapse

Q: Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy's designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Timothy argued that he was only doing his job-a job in which he had responsibility for improving the welfare of employees. Which of the following, if true, would help Hartford Mills avoid such situations in the future? A) ensuring the provision of a retaliatory policy for employees who go against the company B) holding town hall meetings to explain to employees why Timothy was suspected C) enlisting the support of popular employees like Timothy to discharge the employee welfare duties D) engaging in collective bargaining as it is the only way to motivate employees to work efficiently E) specifying the permissible and prohibited aspects of an employee's formal role in the organization

Q: Timothy Jenkins had been working for six years at Hartford Mills, a company that takes a strong stand against unionization. Though Timothy's designation was that of a production supervisor, as the company grew, he also took on additional duties like keeping a check on employee safety, ensuring that legal measures are followed, and implementing programs for labor welfare that the company planned. Many believed that Timothy was doing a great job for the company, and so it came as a surprise when Timothy was rumored to face severe disciplinary action, as he was encouraging the workers to join a union. However, he was let off with a mere warning. Which of the following, if true, would explain this paradox? A) The management had recently instituted a formal employee welfare committee. B) Timothy stressed the fact that he was a meticulous worker who always adhered to company policies. C) The management had recently moved from an open shop mechanism to a closed shop mechanism. D) Timothy claimed that he was only looking to ensure greater employee welfare, which was one of the duties the company had assigned to him. E) Timothy argued that allowing unionization had increased the levels of employee satisfaction in one of their rival companies.

Q: Which of the following organizational factors encourages political behavior? A) using objective criteria in the appraisal B) using multiple outcomes to measure performance C) allowing significant time to pass between the time of an action and its appraisal D) avoiding the zero-sum approach for resource allocation E) ensuring role clarity

Q: Which of the following is an organizational factor that increases illegitimate political behavior? A) internal locus of control B) low expectations of success C) high trust D) low organizational investment E) zero-sum reward practice

Q: If an individual ________, then he or she is less likely to engage in illegitimate political behavior. A) has invested a lot in the organization in terms of time and efforts B) possesses a scarce skill or knowledge C) has influential contacts outside the organization D) does not expect any future benefits from the organization E) has an external locus of control

Q: Which of the following is an individual factor that influences political behavior? A) reallocation of resources B) unclear performance evaluation system C) high performance pressures D) perceived job alternatives E) zero-sum reward practice

Q: Employees exhibiting which of the following features are more likely to engage in political behavior? A) lack of organizational investment B) external locus of control C) low need for power D) Machiavellian personality E) low self-monitoring

Q: ________ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to support their goals and interests. A) Legitimate political behavior B) Politicking C) Illegitimate political behavior D) Sabotage E) Whistle-blowing

Q: Which of the following factors contributes to political behavior in the organization? A) presence of pure and objective facts B) existence of uniform goals and interests among all employees C) provision of clear and objective performance outcomes D) presence of limited resources in the organization E) perception that gains of one group are not at the expense of the loss incurred by another group

Q: Political behaviors usually ________. A) lie outside of an individual's specified job requirements B) are counterproductive to individual goals C) are seen only in large organizations D) are sanctioned by organizational leaders E) are expected as part of each job requirement

Q: Tina Simmons worked as a welder at a shipyard company where she was forced to encounter nude and partially nude pictures posted by her male co-workers in common areas. The men also referred to her using obscene nicknames and made offensive remarks concerning her body. When Tina complained, her supervisor took no corrective action despite having an active sexual harassment policy approved by the EEOC. Tina wished to file a discrimination suit but instead she chose to endure the harassment as she could not risk losing her job. Which of the following, if true, would have strengthened her resolve to file a discrimination suit? A) The colleagues who sexually harassed Tina shared a great rapport with her supervisor. B) Tina had heard of only one prior instance wherein an employee in the company had filed a discrimination suit. C) Tina shared a strained working relationship with her supervisor. D) The company policy prescribed that Tina would face no backlash if she approached the EEOC. E) Tina had few female colleagues at the shipyard where she worked.

Q: Which of the following is true with regard to sexual harassment at the workplace? A) An aggressive tone is the most effective for women to make their complaints of sexual harassments known. B) Women in positions of power typically do not perpetrate sexual harassment of their male employees. C) The supervisor-employee dyad best characterizes an equal power relationship that can be used to prevent sexual harassment. D) The best approach to preventing accusations of sexual harassment is to refrain from any behavior that may be taken as harassing. E) Women in positions of power in an organization are typically not sexually harassed by males who occupy less powerful positions.

Q: Which of the following factors can lead to greater probability of sexual harassment at the workplace? A) an active sexual harassment policy B) large power differentials C) a no-retaliation policy for victims seeking justice D) awareness regarding sexual harassment E) larger percentage of women in positions of power

Q: Connie Cole works as a junior market analyst at SPS Services. Her previous manager retired a couple of months back, and she now has a younger male manager who repeatedly insists that she accompany him for a coffee or dinner after work. Initially, Connie was unsuspecting and refused because she did not have the time for such engagements during weekdays. Later, when her manager's requests became frequent, she grew uncomfortable and firmly told him that she was not interested in him and his attempts were not welcome. She realized that this step could backfire because, as her superior, he has complete control over her appraisals, bonuses, and promotions. Her manager even told her that if she does not agree, he will "find other ways." Connie's experiences are best described as ________. A) whistle-blowing B) scapegoating C) domestic abuse D) sexual harassment E) ambient abuse

Q: Which of the following is a subtle form of sexual harassment? A) requesting repeatedly for a date when the other person is clearly disinterested B) forcing someone to accept a sexual proposition C) making jokes with sexual overtones D) engaging in unwanted physical touching E) forcing someone to provide sexual favors in return for a promotion

Q: Which of the following is an overt form of sexual harassment? A) being too friendly B) pinups posted in the workplace C) off-color jokes D) unwanted physical touching E) unwanted looks or comments

Q: Which of the following statements is true? A) The impact of sexual harassment is individual, not organizational. B) A clear understanding of the actions that constitute sexual harassment does not exist. C) Today, the rise of overt forms of sexual harassment presents a major concern for organizations. D) Women in positions of power in an organization are free from sexual harassment by male subordinates. E) Curtailing sexual harassment requires higher-order intervention programs as managers cannot be expected to help in this regard.

Q: For a person to be recognized as having a high degree of political skill, he or she must have the ________. A) ability to recognize that power in an organization does not translate into success B) ability to submit to the demands made by others at all times C) ability to influence others to enhance their own objectives D) ability to respect and consider the needs of others first E) ability to make sacrifices for the betterment of others