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Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding size of teams? A) The most effective teams have twelve to fifteen members. B) When teams have excess members, cohesiveness declines. C) As team size increases, social loafing decreases. D) When teams have excess members, mutual accountability increases. E) Members of large teams coordinate work better when pressed for time.
Q:
Cultural diversity is an asset for teams where tasks ________. A) require a variety of viewpoints B) are simple and routine C) involve emotional labor D) are highly technical E) required for completing the work are highly independent
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding a culturally diverse team? A) Elements of diversity do not interfere with team processes. B) Culturally homogeneous teams have more difficulty learning to work with each other and solving problems than culturally heterogeneous teams. C) Generally, newly formed culturally diverse teams underperform as compared to newly formed culturally homogeneous teams. D) Cultural diversity within a team is not advisable for those tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints. E) Culturally diverse teams are more affected by surface-level diversity than by deep-level diversity.
Q:
Which of the following is true with regard to the impact of diversity on team effectiveness? A) High levels of diversity among team members benefit the group from the stage of forming. B) Race and gender diversity bear the highest positive impact on team performance. C) Leadership has a negligible role to play in diverse teams because the members manage themselves autonomously. D) Elements of diversity are undesirable as they interfere with team processes in the long run. E) Cultural diversity serves as an asset for tasks that call for a variety of viewpoints once the team has worked out its differences.
Q:
According to the concept of organizational demography, if team members have dissimilar experiences, it will lead to ________. A) increased employee satisfaction B) decreased level of conflicts C) higher employee motivation D) higher employee turnover E) higher team efficacy
Q:
Organizational demography suggests that attributes such as age or the date of joining should help the organization in ________. A) promoting diversity and multiculturalism B) reducing discrimination in the workplace C) determining appropriate compensation packages D) assessing the training needs at an occupational level E) predicting employee turnover in the company
Q:
Which of the following terms describes the degree to which members of a work unit share a common demographic attribute, such as age, sex, race, educational level, or length of service? A) social conformity B) organizational value C) organizational demography D) diversity E) organizational multiculturalism
Q:
The adviser role in a team is responsible for ________. A) providing structure B) fighting external battles C) offering insightful analysis of options D) coordinating and integrating group tasks E) encouraging the search for more information
Q:
The controller role in a team is responsible for ________. A) initiating creative ideas B) examining details and enforcing rules C) offering insightful analysis of options D) coordinating and integrating group tasks E) providing directions and following up with implementation
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding team composition? A) A team's performance is merely the summation of its individual members' abilities. B) High-ability teams find it hard to adapt to changing situations. C) Agreeableness is the only personality dimension that aids the ability to work in groups. D) In successful teams, members should be selected to ensure all the various roles are filled. E) A high-ability team will function well irrespective of the deficits in the abilities of the leader.
Q:
People scoring high on ________ are valuable in teams because they're good at backing up fellow team members and at sensing when their support is truly needed. A) conscientiousness B) positivity C) emotional stability D) agreeableness E) openness to experience
Q:
Which of the following pairs of personality dimensions contribute to high team effectiveness? A) introversion and reflexivity B) type A and type B C) reflexivity and submissiveness D) conscientiousness and openness to experience E) perfectionism and rule consciousness
Q:
Which of the following reward systems is likely to reinforce team effort and commitment? A) job sharing B) gainsharing C) piece-rate pay D) merit-based pay E) skill-based pay
Q:
In which of the following teams is leadership of most importance to coordinate the efforts of various teams in order to produce a desired outcome? A) technical teams B) self-managed work teams C) problem-solving teams D) management teams E) multiteam systems
Q:
Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each other's backs after the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other members' work and looking for mistakes to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is lacking in Araceli's team? A) adequate resources B) climate of trust C) team structure D) performance evaluations E) leadership
Q:
Jean Wills, a trainer with Leverage Inc., is infuriated because the conference hall that she had booked for her morning session with a new batch of trainees will be occupied by the HR team for the day. Jean feels that the company only superficially commits to training and that it is not a priority as this lack of facilities for training is a recurring phenomenon. Recently, she had asked the HR department to supply printed copies of her material for the orientation and training modules to the new trainees, and HR refused, saying the soft copies available on the systems would suffice. Which of the following contextual areas is the source of problem between the training department and the HR department in this scenario? A) performance evaluation B) reward systems C) adequate resources D) leadership E) structure
Q:
According to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is a process variable that influences effectiveness of a team? A) leadership and structure B) team efficacy C) member flexibility D) performance evaluation and reward systems E) abilities of members
Q:
The team effectiveness model classifies the key components of effective teams into three general categories: context, composition, and process. Which of the following variables belongs to the composition category? A) adequate resources B) conflict level C) team efficacy D) performance evaluation system E) personality of team members
Q:
With reference to the team effectiveness model, which of the following is one of the key components of an effective team, included under the category of contextual factors? A) team efficacy B) climate of trust C) common purpose D) social loafing E) specific goals
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the key components of effective teams? A) team efficacy B) company reputation C) adequate resources D) member flexibility E) leadership and structure
Q:
Which of the following statements is not true regarding multiteam systems? A) They are used to offset the problems associated with adding more members to an existing team. B) They are collections of two or more independent teams that share a superordinate goal. C) They are effectively teams of teams. D) They are more successful when they have boundary spanners. E) They perform better when lines of communication are restricted.
Q:
Which of the following is desirable when a crucial project is delegated to a virtual team? A) encouraging less interaction among members so they completely focus on the project B) avoiding publicity of the team's progress and success in the organization C) promoting a sense of independence over group spirit to encourage competition D) engaging in close monitoring of the work being done by the team throughout the project E) discouraging the sharing of unique information as it benefits some employees unfairly
Q:
Virtual teams are characterized by ________ in comparison to teams which interact face-to-face. A) low popularity among companies B) low social rapport and direct interaction C) low sharing of unique information D) low need for supervision E) low need for publicizing throughout the organization
Q:
Which of the following types of teams allows for collaboration between team members who are physically dispersed? A) problem-solving teams B) self-managed work teams C) task teams D) virtual teams E) command teams
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding a cross-functional team? A) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from different hierarchical levels. B) A cross-functional team is made up of employees from the same department. C) Cross-functional teams have decreased in popularity in the last few decades. D) In the case of a cross-functional team, the early stages of development are typically very short. E) Cross-functional teams are used for developing new ideas and coordinating complex projects.
Q:
GoAir, a low-cost airline, has created a team made up of employees from production, planning, quality control, tooling, design engineering, and information systems to automate the company's C-17 program. This team is most likely to be an example of a ________ team. A) command B) cross-functional C) self-managed work D) problem-solving E) task
Q:
To retain its edge in the organic health food market, Natura has established a high-priority team comprised of senior executives from the company's production, marketing, and research divisions. These employees work together closely to study consumer attitudes about organic health foods and come up with a closely monitored development and marketing strategy for new products. This ensures that each division is informed of the specific needs, timelines, and expected outcomes of the strategy. It also makes Natura a company that adapts to changes in market trends swiftly. The team Natura uses here is of the ________ type. A) problem-solving B) self-managed work C) cross-functional D) traditional E) departmental
Q:
Which of the following teams is more likely to be made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level but different work areas? A) problem-solving B) self-managed work C) cross-functional D) traditional E) departmental
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding self-managed work teams? A) Self-managed work teams typically consist of forty to fifty employees. B) Self-managed work teams typically manage conflicts well. C) Members of self-managed work teams typically report lower job satisfaction. D) Self-managed work teams are typically composed of employees from different departments who work independent of each other. E) In the case of self-managed work teams, supervisory positions take on decreased importance.
Q:
Nick, the director of manufacturing at a large electronics company, has created a team of eleven employees from quality control for working on high priority projects. Nick gives the team members the responsibility of planning and scheduling their own work and making all functional decisions. Also, members of this team evaluate each other's performance. This is an example of a ________ team. A) problem-solving B) self-managed work C) cross-functional D) virtual E) task-resolution
Q:
________ teams are defined as groups of employees who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. A) Independent B) Self-managed work C) Cross-functional D) Problem-solving E) Traditional
Q:
The supervisors of the production division of one of the branches of Georgia Mills have been informed of some irregularities noticed in inventory of raw materials by some trusted subordinates. To get a clearer picture, the supervisors had a quick meeting with the subordinates who reported the matter over lunch. The subordinates recommended rotating the schedule of employees who account for the incoming and used up stock so as to pinpoint the defaulting employee. The supervisors agreed that this was a good strategy but admitted that the matter must be escalated to the production manager before such a change can be implemented. They followed up this meeting with subsequent sessions to evaluate how the change worked. The supervisors and subordinates form a(n) ________ team in this scenario. A) cross-functional B) independent C) problem-solving D) virtual E) self-managed
Q:
Problem-solving teams can ________. A) implement the recommended changes to resolve a problem B) assume responsibility for the outcomes of a solution they implemented C) provide recommendations after a discussion amongst department members D) resolve problems of different departments in an organization simultaneously E) combine the expertise of employees across different divisions and organizational levels
Q:
A team consists of employees from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving the work environment but they do not have the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggestions. This is most likely to be a(n) ________ team. A) cross-functional B) virtual C) self-managed work D) problem-solving E) independent
Q:
The extensive use of work teams benefits organizations by ________. A) generating neutral synergy among all employees of the team B) eliminating the need for mutual accountability for results C) developing the various team member's skills such that they are random and varied D) generating a potential for creating greater outputs without increasing inputs E) ensuring that the mere accumulation of individual efforts is used for group work
Q:
Which of the following accurately differentiates between work groups and work teams? A) Work groups are used by top-management employees, while work teams are used by lower-level workers. B) Work groups are used for functions relating to areas of the external environment, while work teams are exclusively used for departmental problems and issues. C) Work groups involve members who have complementary skills, while work teams use employees who have random and varied skills. D) Work teams generate a potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs, while work groups cannot perform this function. E) Work teams represent the mere accumulation of individual efforts, while work groups generate a positive synergy within the organization.
Q:
A work team is characterized by ________. A) the goal of sharing information B) the presence of neutral to negative synergy C) the availability of complementary skills among members D) the individual accountability for outcomes and results E) the mere accumulation of individual efforts
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding a work team? A) Work teams are rarely used in organizations today. B) Work teams are generally less flexible than traditional departments. C) Work teams generate positive synergy through coordinated effort. D) Work teams are less responsive to changes in the internal and external environment of the company. E) Work teams involve members of random and varied skill sets.
Q:
The goal of work groups is ________. A) generating positive synergy B) improving collective performance C) inculcating a climate of trust D) sharing relevant information E) enhancing team efficacy
Q:
Work groups are characterized by ________. A) the emphasis on generating positive synergy B) the goal of sharing information among members C) the mutual and team-based accountability for results D) the need to attain collective performance E) the availability of complementary skill sets
Q:
Which of the following statements best defines a work group? A) A work group performs at a level greater than the sum of its inputs from individual members. B) A work group interacts primarily to share information, rather than to engage in work that requires joint effort. C) A work group consists of members who work together and generate positive synergy through coordinated effort. D) A work group consists of members having complementary skills that are applied in a coordinated fashion to the task at hand. E) A work group involves individual and mutual accountability regarding results and outcomes.
Q:
The current popularity of teams can be attributed to the fact that ________. A) they enable quicker accomplishment of goals than individuals B) they represent a better way to use employee talents C) they reduce the need for coordination and supervision D) they aid in the performance of simple tasks that do not require diverse inputs E) they strengthen the worth of individual teams players over the team
Q:
Describe the nominal group technique.
Q:
Describe the relationship between distinctiveness and groupshift.
Q:
Discuss the impact of brainstorming on the possibility of groupthink.
Q:
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of group decisions as compared to individual decisions.
Q:
Describe cohesiveness as a property of groups. How can a group be made more cohesive?
Q:
How does group size affect a group's behavior?
Q:
According to the status characteristics theory, what are the three sources of status?
Q:
How can norms be used to reduce deviant workplace behavior?
Q:
What is the relationship between performance norms, cohesiveness, and group productivity?
Q:
What are four common classes of norms?
Q:
Explain the relationship between role conflict and reference groups.
Q:
Explain the following terms: role perception and role expectation.
Q:
Describe the punctuated-equilibrium model.
Q:
List and briefly describe the stages in the five-stage model of group development.
Q:
Describe the characteristics of the social identity theory.
Q:
The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet formally but does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group.
Q:
Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than individuals working alone.
Q:
Groupthink is a phenomenon that relates to the consensus norms.
Q:
Amy Jones has to come up with a strategy to regulate the excessive use of the Internet by her employees in such a way that they accept and commit to the solution themselves. It is advisable for her to use group decision making rather than individual decision making in this situation.
Q:
Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.
Q:
Group decisions are generally less accurate than the judgments of the most accurate individual in the group.
Q:
Surface-level diversity refers to attitudes, values, and opinions which are different in diverse groups.
Q:
If a group is highly cohesive, then it will be highly productive even with low performance norms.
Q:
High-status members of groups are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members.
Q:
An individual's personal characteristics, like good looks or friendly personality, represent one of the dimensions of the status characteristics theory.
Q:
Important groups to which individuals belong or hope to belong are called nominal groups.
Q:
A company's dress code policy comes under the performance norms.
Q:
Role expectations at work are often conveyed through the psychological contract.
Q:
Role perception indicates our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation.
Q:
The development of temporary work groups is best understood in terms of the five-stage group development model.
Q:
During the forming stage of group development, close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness.
Q:
A batch of trainees has been assigned a new project, and the team is unsure of the details of the project and how they will pursue its completion as a group with specific tasks and roles. This batch of trainees is in the forming stage of group development.
Q:
The social identity theory proposes that people use groups to understand who they are and how they fit into the world.
Q:
Ingroup favoritism does not adversely affect people of the out-group.
Q:
Hubert Gray needs an instruction manual developed for his new product. This is the last step of the project and he has severe budget constraints. He needs a small team of technical writers to work together closely to write the manual on fairly short notice. He needs them to communicate ideas quickly, creatively, and affordably. Which of the following group techniques should Hubert consider? A) nominal and electronic B) brainstorming C) brainstorming and electronic D) electronic and interacting E) interacting and brainstorming
Q:
For seven years, Bonnie Patterson has been a manager at Wayne and Watson, a legal consultancy firm. A good part of her workday involves holding meetings, and she likes to follow a well-defined schedule. For this reason, members of her team receive the agenda at the beginning of the meeting, followed by some time to contemplate the issue at hand individually. Subsequently, the team members present their ideas one after the other, the group discusses them together, and lastly, a ranking is done to choose the most favored idea. This represents the ________ approach of group decision making. A) interacting B) reference group C) brainstorming D) nominal group E) groupthink
Q:
A group decision-making method in which individual members meet face-to-face to pool their judgments in a systematic but independent fashion is the ________ technique. A) reference groups B) nominal groups C) brainstorming D) interacting groups E) ingroup
Q:
Which of the following statements is true regarding brainstorming? A) Brainstorming encourages criticizing an idea as early as possible. B) Brainstorming overcomes the problem of "production blocking." C) Brainstorming can overcome the pressures for conformity. D) Research consistently shows that a group in a brainstorming session generates more ideas than an individual working alone. E) Brainstorming fails to develop group cohesiveness.