Q&A Hero

Q: Like many other marketing strategy specialists, Mark Fritz relies heavily on creativity and originality. Members of his team are selected on the basis of their ability to think divergently, and Mark often conducts activities to ensure that this ability is developed. For instance, before any new project, Mark invites his team to sit together and churn out possible ideas about the new product, its theme, and ways in which it can be projected best in the market. These sessions usually provide him with a bank of potential ideas from which the team selects some strong concepts and develops them into a campaign. To encourage freedom in these sessions, Mark has a no-evaluation policy. This is an example of ________. A) ingroup favoritism B) groupshift C) brainstorming D) groupthink E) social loafing

Q: Groupthink is most commonly seen in the group decision-making approach using ________. A) reference groups B) nominal groups C) brainstorming D) interacting groups E) electronic meeting groups

Q: Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, a European airline, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Joe experienced groupshift during the meeting? A) Joe stated that the company should cut expenditures on other areas like marketing and advertising instead of hiking fares to retain their current profit margins. B) Joe stated that hiking prices would lead to losing market share to the low-cost airlines which already controlled half the market. C) Joe stated that precise methods of fuel filling and consumption must be implemented to efficiently use their current supply of fuel. D) Joe suggested adding a fuel surcharge to all tickets for commercial flights with immediate effect. E) Joe proposed the usage of direct and higher altitude routes that would curtail fuel consumption.

Q: Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, an European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of groupshift in Joe's opinions during the meeting? A) Joe proposed that the company should invite price quotes from new suppliers to reduce their dependence on their current fuel suppliers. B) Joe determined that the best strategy would be to slash prices and minimize all fringes that are used for customer service. C) Joe convinced the top management team to decrease the capacity of the flights. D) Joe recommended that the prices for business class fares be increased as they represent a less price-sensitive group of customers. E) Joe claimed that aviation fuel was their second largest expense and this was the time to contemplate obtaining a few futures contracts with suppliers.

Q: Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, a European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the argument that Mark experienced groupshift in the meeting? A) Mark argued that implementing a price rise was necessary to recover the costs in operating the flights. B) Mark stated that the company should increase operations but at lower fares so they can regain control over the market share. C) Mark believed that most of their clientele was not price sensitive. D) Mark stated that oil suppliers were going to pressure them even more in the future and the company had to resort to alternatives like bio fuels. E) Mark recommended that the company should establish a fuel hedging contract with its key suppliers to ensure protection from fuel price rises.

Q: Joe Sullivan and Mark Holland, members of the top management at EuAir, a European airlines, were preparing for a meeting to discuss strategies to combat the recent rise in fuel prices. Before the meeting began, Joe and Mark were discussing how oil prices significantly impact the health of the world economy. Joe spoke of how higher oil prices since 1999, partly the result of OPEC supply management policies, contributed to the global economic downturn in 2000-2001. Mark agreed but added that the right kind of strategy could help them overcome this challenge, and that they could even use the situation to hike fares and generate additional revenues. Which of the following statements, if true, would denote the occurrence of groupshift in Mark's opinions during the meeting? A) Mark thought that EuAir should suspend some of its less profitable flights in the short run in favor of the routes that have greater demand among consumers. B) Mark proposed that this was an opportunity for EuAir to use its brand name effectively and diversify into other products and services. C) Mark agreed with Joe's opinion that providing the best service possible, even if it meant incurring a loss in the short run, would be the best strategy. D) Mark proposed that the prices be hiked and additional customer service measures be included so costumers have the best experience flying with EuAir. E) Mark encouraged the top-management team to consider laying off surplus employees and rightsizing EuAir to enhance its efficiency and lower costs.

Q: The HR department at Bailey Services is considering offering telecommuting as an option to some experienced employees. At a meeting to formalize the move, the heads of the different departments met with Laura Watson, the HR manager. Laura, who thought this meeting would be a short one, was proven wrong when all the members, who had previously agreed that telecommuting would work in their company, began coming up with divergent views. By the end, two divisions claimed they had major concerns about allowing employees to telecommute, and those in favor of it were equally vocal. This scenario depicts the operation of ________. A) conformity B) groupshift C) role conflict D) groupthink E) social loafing

Q: Groupshift is seen when ________. A) group members view themselves in better light when compared to members of the out-group B) group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold when discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution C) group members notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups D) group members tend to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own E) group members fail to express alternative opinions and deviant views under the influence of the norm for consensus

Q: In discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions they hold. This phenomenon is called ________. A) social desirability bias B) groupshift C) halo effect D) social loafing E) ingroup favoritism

Q: Which of the following steps can be taken by a manager to minimize groupthink? A) increase the group size B) encourage group leaders to develop a stronger sense of group identity C) prevent all team members from engaging in a critical evaluation of ideas at the beginning D) ask the group members to first focus on the positives of an alternative rather than the negatives E) seek input from employees before the group leader presents his or her opinions

Q: Sonia Soans is corporate trainer. One of her favorite ways to start a training program is to present a case study and encourage members to think of the case in depth and discuss it amongst each other. Using the results of the activity, she understands the baseline measures of the group's functioning. During one of her recent sessions, she observed that the group came to a consensus very quickly. However, when asked to present their views, the team members were not too confident and appeared to be under an illusion of unanimity. From this scenario, we can say that this group experienced ________. A) diversity B) groupshift C) role conflict D) groupthink E) social loafing

Q: ________ is defined as a phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action. A) Groupshift B) Social loafing C) Ingroup favoritism D) Cyber loafing E) Groupthink

Q: When compared to individual decision making, group decision making has a disadvantage in the area of ________. A) diversity B) creativity C) acceptance of final solutions D) speed E) accuracy

Q: When ________ is of importance in decision making, group decisions are preferred to individual decisions. A) acceptance of solution B) speed C) efficiency D) clear responsibility E) legitimacy

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when compared to individual decision making? A) increased ambiguous responsibility B) increased conformity pressures C) increased diversity of views D) increased dispersion of accountability E) increased pace of decision making

Q: ________ is defined as the extent to which members of a group are similar to, or different from, one another. A) Homogeneity B) Diversity C) Conformity D) Civility E) Universality

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of group cohesiveness and performance norms on group productivity? A) When cohesiveness is low and performance norms are also low, productivity will be high. B) The productivity of the group is affected by the performance norms but not by the cohesiveness of the group. C) If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be high. D) If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity will be low. E) When both cohesiveness and performance norms are high, productivity will be high.

Q: ________ refers to the degree to which members are attracted to each other and motivated to stay in the group. A) Assertiveness B) Social dominance C) Authoritativeness D) Cohesiveness E) Diversity

Q: ICE is a non-profit organization that runs awareness campaigns and research programs that provide data to initiate the process of legislative changes on various aspects of the environment like forest cover, nuclear fuel, endangered species and others. The ICE operates through networks of grass-root level researchers who are grouped into flexible project teams whose roles and duties change with each new project. The ICE believes its employees to be like family, and an informal environment pervades its functioning without any compromises being made in the efficiency. Recently, the project manager of the rainwater harvesting pilot project in the suburbs has been informed of two delays in the project. When the third extension request came to him, he looked into the matter by speaking individually with the five team members. Which of the following complaints by the team members, if true, would indicate the presence of social loafing in the team? A) A team member complained that the residents of the suburb in which they were working were uncooperative and did not accept their most cordial requests for helping in data collection. B) Nancy, one of the new team members, reported that she felt the team was not cohesive enough. C) Two of the most experienced employees on the team reported having to shoulder a disproportionate amount of the current workload and asked for an internal transfer. D) The scarcity of funds was one of the major concerns that all the team members mentioned. E) The team members were dissatisfied with the compensation package as they felt they were putting in a lot of work and being paid relatively less.

Q: Which of the following is true with regard to social loafing? A) Social loafing decreases when rewards are added for collective performance of the group. B) Social loafing reflects the drastic rise in employee performance when employees work collectively. C) Social loafing involves the cumulative rise in productivity when teams increase in size. D) Social loafing is a result of the emphasis on individual outcomes over shared outcomes. E) Social loafing is witnessed less in collectivist cultures where people take pride in group performance.

Q: Which of the following is an effective means of countering social loafing? A) increasing the rewards the group is given if it succeeds B) increasing the amount by which the group's progress is monitored C) ensuring that individual contributions to the group's outcome are identified D) increasing the size of the group E) increasing the group's workload

Q: Which of the following is a contributing factor with regard to social loafing? A) difficult task assignments B) high collective efficacy C) severe time constraints D) dispersion of responsibility E) heavy workload

Q: When faced with a number of tight deadlines, Mandy Moore often delegates work collectively. Recently she chose some fairly experienced employees to work on a high-priority project. She was heartened to see that the selected group of employees was having numerous meetings and working hard. However, when she went to check on their progress at the halfway mark in the project schedule, she was shocked to see how little the team had done in the past three weeks. This scenario reflects ________. A) groupthink B) collective efficacy C) social loafing D) groupshift E) ingroup favoritism

Q: Which of the following terms indicates the tendency of individuals to spend less effort when working collectively? A) groupthink B) collective efficacy C) social loafing D) groupshift E) social facilitation

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect that size of the group has on the performance of the group? A) The size of the group does not affect the group's overall behavior. B) Evidence indicates that larger groups are faster at completing tasks than smaller ones. C) Compared to smaller groups, larger groups are better at problem solving. D) If the goal of the group is fact-finding, then smaller groups are more effective than larger groups. E) Evidence indicates that individuals perform better in larger groups than in smaller ones.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the effect of status on conformity pressure? A) High-status individuals are often given less freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. B) People in high-status jobs have especially negative reactions to social pressure exerted by people in low-status jobs. C) Lower-status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their high-status peers. D) Groups exert equal conformity pressure on all individuals regardless of their status. E) Compared to high-status members, low-status members are given a wider range of discretion as long as their activities aren't severely detrimental to group goal achievement.

Q: According to status characteristics theory, which of the following factors does not determine status? A) control over the resources needed by the group B) contribution to goals C) ability to conform to group norms D) personality E) talent

Q: Status refers to the ________. A) impact that support of group norms has on workplace civility B) adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group C) socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others D) existence of roles that are at variance with one another E) acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group's members

Q: Which of the following is true with regard to deviant workplace behavior? A) It is involuntary in nature. B) Widespread deviant workplace behavior depends on the accepted norms of the group. C) It has a negligible adverse impact on organization as it is accepted by some employees. D) Research on deviance at the workplace has shown that employees operating individually engage in more deviant behaviors than those who function as a part of groups. E) Leaving work early is an example of a property-related deviant workplace behavior.

Q: Which of the following terms best represents voluntary actions that violate significant organizational norms and, in doing so, threaten the well-being of the organization or its members? A) undue hardship B) deviant workplace behavior C) antidiscrimination and retaliation D) progressive discipline E) wrongful termination

Q: Jonas Wilkes has struggled for many years with tight finances at home. Throughout school and college, he worked really hard, earned the best grades, and prepared himself for a better life. By a better life, he meant a house in the uptown Wellington Road and a membership in the Diamond District Club where he envisions himself playing golf on weekends. The residents of Wellington Road and the members of Diamond District Club serve as a ________ for him. A) nominal group B) organizational group C) control group D) intervention group E) reference group

Q: The important groups to which an individual belongs or hopes to belong are known as ________ groups. A) interacting B) reference C) organizational D) control E) nominal

Q: ________ refers to the adjustment of one's behavior to align with the norms of the group. A) Deviance B) Conflict C) Divergence D) Conformity E) Appearance

Q: A local government work crew cleans up parks and other public spaces. In this crew, the dirtiest jobs are generally given to the newest members, while the more senior members of the crew tend to do little except draw their pay. Which of the following classes of norms encompasses arrangements like this? A) performance norms B) appearance norms C) resource allocation norms D) reference norms E) leisure norms

Q: The ________ norms dictate behavior such as with whom group members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job. A) appearance B) social arrangement C) performance D) reference E) organizational

Q: Which of the following is an example of performance norms? A) dress codes B) rules in informal groups C) assignment of difficult jobs, pay, and equipment D) distribution of pay E) the manner in which a job must be done

Q: Which of the following represents the acceptable standards of behavior within a group that are shared by the group's members? A) status B) norms C) dyads D) goals E) cliques

Q: Michael is devout and very active in his church. He is also a very dedicated employee. His manager offers him a promotion, but the new role will require him to work Sundays. Michael would like the promotion but realizes that it would force him to miss some church activities. In this situation, Michael is most likely to experience ________. A) role conflict B) social loafing C) groupthink D) role fuzziness E) groupshift

Q: When ________, the result is role conflict. A) compliance with one role aids our performance in another role B) compliance with the group is an attempt to understand who we are and how we fit into the world C) compliance with the group is marked by a tendency to notice and emphasize those aspects of the group that are distinctive D) compliance with one role requirement may make it difficult to comply with another E) compliance with the group is strengthened by members who have similar values and characteristics

Q: Most people assume that police officers should behave in a lawful manner, refrain from demonstrating favoritism to any particular group, and do their best to uphold the law. Which of the following terms best represents these beliefs? A) diversity B) similarity C) role expectation D) uncertainty reduction E) dispersion of responsibility

Q: Role ________ is defined as the way others believe you should act in a given context. A) fuzziness B) expectation C) conflict D) perception E) enhancement

Q: Janice Cooper has recently joined a hospital as a part of the internship program prescribed by the nursing school she attends. Janice, who was inspired to take up this profession by the story of Florence Nightingale, has very strong ideals about how she should behave as a nurse. She feels that as a nurse she must be gentle, pleasant, and caring at all times so she can serve her patients well, and she often goes to great lengths as an intern by putting in extra hours at the hospital and so on. The scenario reflects Janice's ________. A) role fuzziness B) role ambiguity C) role conflict D) role perception E) role status

Q: Role perception is defined as ________. A) the way others believe we should act in a given context B) our view of how we are supposed to act in a given situation C) the existence of roles that are at variance with one another D) the socially defined position or rank given to group members by others E) the degree to which members are motivated to stay in the group.

Q: Which of the following represents the major determinants of group development and functioning as depicted by the punctuated-equilibrium model? A) better perspectives and patterns B) group solidarity and collectivist goals C) promotion of diversity D) deadlines and time constraints E) role perception and expectation

Q: The determination of the behavioral patterns and assumptions through which the group approaches the project is a function of the ________ phase in the punctuated-equilibrium model. A) performing B) inertia C) equilibrium D) transition E) first meeting

Q: The first phase of group development for temporary groups involves ________. A) the phase of inertia before transition B) the determination of the group's direction C) the transition to plan the major changes D) a period of accelerated activity E) the adoption of new perspectives

Q: Tabby Tolman is a project coordinator at Tristar Solutions. Whenever a new project comes her way, she holds a project meeting and follows it up with repeated meetings to address any concerns the team members may have and to monitor their progress. However, with the peak of the business season arriving, she has been holding just one project initiation meeting for every project to save on time. She has become increasingly worried about the team's progress with no inputs coming from the members, and she has had no time to check with them. With two weeks left to go for a high priority project of a month's duration, she has now begun to see some work coming through and is relieved. This development reflects that the group is at the stage of ________. A) forming B) inertia following the first meeting C) second phase of inertia before the group's last meeting D) storming E) transition following the halfway mark in the timeline

Q: Which of the following statements is true with regard to the punctuated-equilibrium model of group development? A) It applies to all permanent work groups. B) It follows the five stages of forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. C) It does not consider the changes in patterns of group activities in response to deadlines and time constraints. D) It involves the two strategies of groupthink and groupshift to break out of the phases of inertia. E) It characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes.

Q: Which of the following is true with regard to the five-stage group development model? A) All permanent groups pass through the five stages of this model of group development successively. B) For temporary work teams, the performing stage is the last stage of group development. C) The model assumes that employees are functioning at their most effective level beginning in the first stage. D) A positive social focus may aid a group in reaching the performing stage more rapidly. E) Groups proceed through the stages of group development in similar speed and timelines.

Q: Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding the performing stage? A) The performing stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership. B) During the performing stage, there is conflict over who will control the group. C) The performing stage involves members trying out different behaviors in order to understand which behaviors the group considers acceptable. D) For permanent work groups, performing is the last stage in development. E) During the performing stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality.

Q: When the group energy is focused on the task at hand and the group is fully functional, it is said to be in the stage of ________. A) storming B) norming C) inertia D) forming E) performing

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the norming stage of group development? A) According to the five-stage group development model, this is the second stage in the group development model. B) This stage is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership. C) During this stage, members accept the existence of the group but resist the constraints it imposes on individuality. D) During this stage, the group develops a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior. E) During this stage the group completes the task at hand.

Q: During the third stage of group development, ________. A) conflicts over leadership are common B) the group demonstrates cohesiveness C) intragroup conflicts occur D) members resist the constraints the group places on them E) groups disband

Q: By the end of the stage of ________, a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group is established. A) norming B) storming C) forming D) adjourning E) performing

Q: The second stage of the five-stage group development model is characterized by ________. A) uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group B) cohesiveness and close relationships among members of the group C) strong feelings of group identity among members of the group D) intragroup conflict within the group E) pride in the accomplishments of the group

Q: Which of the following stages of the five-stage group development model is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group's purpose, structure, and leadership? A) introduction B) storming C) forming D) evolution E) norming

Q: Which of the following represents the second stage in the five-stage group development model? A) adjourning B) performing C) storming D) forming E) norming

Q: Uncertainty reduction is a dimension of the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well B) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably D) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own E) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

Q: In the context of the social identity theory, distinctiveness refers to the ________. A) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well B) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably C) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world D) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own E) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

Q: Status is a characteristic under the social identity theory that reflects the ________. A) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater identification as well C) tendency of people to link themselves to groups of higher social standing in an attempt to define themselves favorably D) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own E) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups

Q: Similarity is a characteristic under the social identity theory that manifests itself in the ________. A) tendency of ingroup members to notice and emphasize identities that reflect how different they are from other groups B) tendency of people who have greater uniformity in values and characteristics to have greater group identification as well C) tendency of people to link themselves to high-status groups in an attempt to define themselves favorably D) tendency of people to use the group as a means of understanding who they are and how they fit into the world E) tendency of ingroup members to prefer and endorse the products, ideas, and aspects of someone else's culture over their own

Q: Aaron Dias was working on the last shift for the day at All Needs, a retail store owned by an Asian man, when he opened the cash register and stole some money thinking that nobody would witness him stealing. However, one of the customers watched him steal the money and reported it to the manager the next day, and Aaron was terminated. Subsequently, the manager became extremely strict with all his Caucasian employees and was often heard abusing them by saying, "You guys are all the same." This scenario depicts ________. A) social loafing B) ingroup favoritism C) groupthink D) contrast bias E) social exchange

Q: At Milton farms, where a large part of the management comes from the same sociocultural background, many employees of diverse ethical or cultural origins are hired only to ensure legal compliance with laws relating to diversity at the workplace. The company's day-to-day functioning leaves much to be desired in terms of promoting diversity. Recently, the owner's cousin was promoted to the post of a branch manager while three suitable candidates hailing from different cultures were blatantly overlooked. This is an example of ________. A) social loafing B) ingroup favoritism C) groupthink D) contrast bias E) social exchange

Q: ________ is defined as the tendency to see members of the group of which we are a part of as better than other people. A) Ingroup homogeneity B) Xenocentrism C) Ingroup favoritism D) Black sheep effect E) Hindsight bias

Q: Which of the following is true with regard to the social identity theory? A) It proposes that members take personal pride in accomplishments but dissociate from the group in the event of any offenses or failures. B) It proposes that people have emotional reactions to the failure or success of their group because their self-esteem is tied into the group's performance. C) It proposes that people develop only one social identity in childhood that becomes more defined and concrete in the course of their lives. D) It proposes that social identities can never be detrimental as they have no effect on how members of an ingroup view members of an out-group. E) It proposes that members of an ingroup are viewed as being homogeneous, while members of an out-group are seen as being heterogeneous.

Q: Our tendency to take personal pride or offense for the accomplishments of a group we are a part of is the territory of the ________ theory. A) social exchange B) expectancy C) social identity D) reinforcement E) equity

Q: Which of the following differentiates between formal and informal groups? A) The timeline of reference for formal groups is greater than that for informal groups. B) The impact of formal groups on organizational performance is less than that of informal groups. C) Formal groups pursue the goal of social contact, while informal groups have definite organizational goals to attain. D) Formal groups are typically smaller in size when compared to informal groups. E) Formal groups involve clearly defined tasks and roles, while informal groups are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined.

Q: An informal group is characterized by the ________. A) stipulation of expected behaviors by the organization B) predetermined designation of tasks of members C) pursuit of particular organizational goals D) fulfillment of the need for social contact E) creation of timelines and rationale

Q: Which of the following is true regarding formal groups? A) They are natural formations that arise in response to the need for social contact. B) They lack clearly defined structures and roles for their members. C) They have negligible impact on employee performance and behavior. D) A group of people who come together to protest against a new law make up a formal group. E) They are marked by stipulated behaviors in pursuit of organizational goals.

Q: Which of the following is true with regard to groups? A) A group is characterized by the independence of its members. B) A group typically lacks definite roles and structures. C) A group influences our emotional reactions. D) An informal gathering cannot be considered a group. E) The membership of a group does not affect how its members treat outsiders.

Q: Compare and contrast the benefits of intrinsic rewards, such as recognition, and extrinsic rewards, such as pay, as forms of motivation.

Q: List and describe the various flexible benefits plans.

Q: Differentiate between bonuses and gainsharing plans.

Q: How would you relate skill variety, job rotation, and skill-based pay?

Q: List and describe different variable-pay programs.

Q: Explain how participative management can enhance skill variety, task identity, and autonomy as described in the Job Characteristics Model (JCM).

Q: Nora Elm is a newly appointed HR manager at Seven Oaks, a famous PR firm that is not doing too well at present. As she assumed the post of the HR manager, everyone impressed upon her the need to energize the employees and motivate them to give their best to the job. After she met with the employees and managers, she felt that many employees were demotivated because they had attained their maximum potential in their current job roles. Additionally, she felt that though the management believed strongly in its employee-friendly nature, this nature was not manifested in its actions. Those employees who were on the board had begun to mimic the management's action of attributing the lack of any constructive change to company policies. Describe any two changes that Nora should propose at the meeting with a rationale for each.

Q: What is employee involvement and why is it important? What are the two major forms of employee involvement?

Q: Discuss the relationship between social and physical work context and employee satisfaction.

Q: Describe telecommuting as an alternative work arrangement.