Q&A Hero

Q: What is the limitation of reinforcement theory in explaining changes in behavior? A) It does not adequately describe the original behavior. B) It places too much emphasis on feelings and attitudes. C) Most behavior is, in fact, environmentally caused. D) It ignores the effect of rewards and punishments on behavior. E) It does not recognize the effect of cognitive variables.

Q: Helen, a high school teacher, wants her students to actively participate more in class. She has decided to use reinforcement theory to get the required results. Which of the following methods is she most likely to use? A) She is going to call on students who never participate. B) She is going to yell at students, telling them that they are not making good grades. C) She is going to ask the students that always participate to allow the others to have a chance. D) She is going to model what active participation should look like at the beginning of class. E) She is going to give students an extra mark each time that they contribute.

Q: To get the best results while using reinforcement theory, rewards should be ________. A) small and given only once B) large and given at irregular intervals C) given prior to the desired behavior response D) given immediately following the desired behavior E) presented publicly with a large number of witnesses

Q: ________ argues that people learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don't want. A) Theory Y B) Theory X C) Social cognitive theory D) Operant conditioning theory E) McClelland's theory of needs

Q: The proponents of reinforcement theory view behavior as ________. A) the result of a cognitive process B) environmentally caused C) a reflection of the inner state of the individual D) a function of one's power need E) a product of heredity

Q: A(n) ________ is any consequence immediately following a response that increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated. A) conclusion B) reinforcer C) goal D) objective E) referent

Q: The best way for a manager to use verbal persuasion is through the ________, a form of self-fulfilling prophecy in which believing something can make it true. A) confirmation bias B) Pygmalion effect C) anchoring bias D) framing effect E) Electra complex

Q: The Pygmalion effect is also called the ________ effect. A) halo B) self-concordance C) Galatea D) self-determination E) pseudocertainty

Q: Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is generally used by motivational speakers? A) arousal B) enactive mastery C) focused training D) vicarious modeling E) verbal persuasion

Q: With reference to the four sources of self-efficacy as proposed by Albert Bandura, verbal persuasion involves becoming more confident ________. A) because you have gained relevant experience with the particular task or job B) because you see someone else doing the particular task or job C) because someone convinces you that you have the skills necessary to be successful D) because you are rewarded for performing a similar task well E) because you get energized or "psyched up" to perform the particular task or job

Q: One of the sources of self-efficacy is ________, becoming more confident because you see someone else doing the task. A) arousal B) enactive mastery C) visualization D) vicarious modeling E) verbal persuasion

Q: Which of the following sources of increasing self-efficacy involves gaining relevant experience with a particular task or job? A) verbal persuasion B) enactive mastery C) vicarious modeling D) arousal E) cognitive learning

Q: According to Albert Bandura, the most important source of increasing self-efficacy is ________. A) arousal B) vicarious modeling C) verbal persuasion D) enactive mastery E) cognitive learning

Q: ________ refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. A) Emotional contagion B) Affect intensity C) Self-efficacy D) Self-determination E) Reinforcement

Q: The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory. A) two-factor B) self-determination C) goal-setting D) self-efficacy E) reinforcement

Q: Unlike in the case of goal-setting theory, MBO strongly advocates ________. A) self-generated feedback B) explicit time periods C) participatively set goals D) independent tasks E) specific performance objectives

Q: MBO provides individual employees with ________. A) personal performance objectives B) greater work supervision C) predefined targets D) generalized feedback E) clear-cut growth paths

Q: MBO emphasizes goals that are ________. A) tangible, verifiable, and measurable B) achievable, controllable, and profitable C) inspirational, verifiable, and creative D) tangible, rewarding, and assigned E) profitable, attainable, and self-set

Q: According to goal-setting theory, goals are more likely to have a stronger impact on performance when ________. A) goals have long time frames for completion B) tasks are complex rather than simple C) tasks are novel rather than well learned D) goals are easy rather than difficult E) tasks are independent rather than interdependent

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory? A) Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control. B) Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback. C) Generalized goals produce a higher level of output than specific goals. D) People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals. E) Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

Q: The investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance is called ________. A) vicarious modeling B) self-determination C) job engagement D) management by objectives E) job analysis

Q: The concept of ________ considers how strongly people's reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values. A) self-serving bias B) self-fulfilling prophecy C) self-concordance D) self-actualization E) self-efficacy

Q: Rachel's parents used to pay her an allowance every week to feed the cats and to do a few other chores around the house. However, once her mother lost her job, her parents stopped giving her an allowance. Although Rachel quit making her bed every morning, she still continued to feed the cats. Which of the following best explains why Rachel continues to feed the cats? A) Without the extrinsic reward, the task itself is eliminated. B) With the extrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on internal motivation. C) Without the intrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on external motivation. D) Without the extrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on internal motivation. E) With the intrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on external motivation.

Q: Self-determination theory proposes that in addition to being driven by a need for autonomy, people seek ways to achieve ________. A) competence and positive connections B) high rewards C) recognition and status D) career growth E) power and control

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding the cognitive evaluation theory? A) People need extrinsic rewards in order to be motivated. B) Extrinsic rewards tend to reduce intrinsic interest in a task. C) Intrinsic rewards are almost as effective as extrinsic rewards. D) Externally imposed standards of work largely improve intrinsic motivation. E) Extrinsic rewards, including verbal praise, significantly decrease intrinsic motivation.

Q: Which of the following theories proposes that people prefer to feel they have control over their actions, so anything that makes a previously enjoyed task feel more like an obligation than a freely chosen activity will undermine motivation? A) self-serving theory B) motivation-hygiene theory C) two-factor theory D) self-determination theory E) goal setting theory

Q: Which of following needs, as detailed by Maslow's hierarchy of needs, best corresponds to McClelland's need for affiliation? A) safety B) social C) esteem D) self-actualization E) physiological

Q: Which of the following statements is true according to McClelland's theory of needs? A) People with a high achievement need prefer tasks that have a high level of risk. B) People with a high achievement need are interested in motivating others to do well. C) People with a high need for power and affiliation often make good managers in large firms. D) People with a high achievement need experience great satisfaction from success that comes by luck. E) People with a high need for power and a low need for affiliation often make the best managers.

Q: Erika wants to become the head of the HR department. Although the role comes with a generous salary hike and will put her in charge of several subordinates, she is mainly pursuing this position because she believes she can do the job better than anyone else and wants people to know this. According to McClelland's theory of needs, which of the following needs is Erika primarily driven by in this case? A) the need for stability B) the need for achievement C) the need for security D) the need for affiliation E) the need for power

Q: Which of these five employees is most suitable for handling your responsibilities when you are on a vacation? A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug

Q: Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback? A) Joe B) Mary C) Tim D) Sarah E) Doug

Q: McClelland's theory is based on which of the following needs? A) stability, growth, and security B) achievement, power, and affiliation C) self-actualization, stability, and safety D) hygiene, control, and security E) control, status, and self-actualization

Q: According to Herzberg, when ________ are adequate, people won't be dissatisfied, but they will also not be satisfied. A) achievement needs B) affiliation needs C) motivational factors D) power needs E) hygiene factors

Q: According to the two-factor theory proposed by Herzberg, which of the following is considered a hygiene factor? A) promotional opportunities B) quality of supervision C) achievement D) recognition E) responsibility

Q: Which of the following is a motivational factor according to Herzberg's two-factor theory? A) quality of supervision B) recognition C) pay D) relationships with others E) company policies

Q: According to the two-factor theory, ________. A) there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is satisfied, the next one becomes dominant B) most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it C) employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility D) the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation

Q: Which of the following theories proposes the idea of a dual continuum? A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory B) self-determination theory C) two-factor theory D) cognitive evaluation theory E) McClelland's theory of needs

Q: The ________ theory is also called motivation-hygiene theory. A) hierarchy of needs B) goal-setting C) self-determination D) cognitive evaluation E) two-factor

Q: If Alberta is a categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit? A) She will empower her subordinates. B) She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters. C) She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing. D) She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers. E) She will let her employees choose their own goals.

Q: According to Douglas McGregor's Theory Y, a manager assumes that employees ________. A) need to be directed B) prefer to be controlled C) learn to accept responsibility D) need to be micromanaged E) attempt to avoid work

Q: Why is Maslow's theory criticized? A) The concept of self-actualization was unfounded. B) There is little evidence that needs are structured or operate in the way it describes. C) The esteem need is a more powerful motivator than self-actualization. D) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied. E) It does not adequately describe how an organization can satisfy higher-order needs.

Q: Which of the following needs in Maslow's hierarchy refers to the drive to become what one is capable of becoming? A) social B) self-actualization C) physiological D) esteem E) safety

Q: If we consider Maslow's hierarchy of needs in the context of Japan, Greece, and Mexico, where uncertainty-avoidance characteristics are strong, then ________ needs would be on top of the hierarchy. A) self-actualization B) security C) social D) esteem E) growth

Q: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is a lower-order need? A) social B) safety C) esteem D) self-actualization E) recognition

Q: Which of the following needs would most motivate Jonathan? A) social B) esteem C) physiological D) self-actualization E) safety

Q: Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Josephine? A) social B) esteem C) physiological D) self-actualization E) safety

Q: Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Joanna? A) social B) esteem C) physiological D) self-actualization E) safety

Q: Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one's hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs? A) safety B) physiological C) social D) esteem E) psychological

Q: The ________ element of motivation describes how hard a person tries. A) intelligence B) experience C) direction D) intensity E) persistence

Q: The ________ dimension of motivation measures how long a person can maintain effort. A) direction B) persistence C) intensity D) knowledge E) experience

Q: ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. A) Leadership B) Management C) Learning D) Emotional labor E) Motivation

Q: Explain the three components of creativity. Name two biases and give examples of how they would affect creativity.

Q: What are the three ethical decision criteria? Explain.

Q: Explain how stereotyping can cause problems for some managers when making ethical decisions. Provide an example.

Q: Explain the effect of gender on decision making.

Q: Explain the hindsight bias.

Q: What is escalation of commitment? Explain.

Q: Describe the confirmation bias.

Q: What is an anchoring bias?

Q: What is intuitive decision making? Explain.

Q: What is bounded rationality? How is it related to decision making?

Q: Explain the relationship between decision making and perception.

Q: Explain with an example the contrast effect.

Q: Describe and explain the four steps of creative behavior.

Q: Victoria Hastings works as a sales manager at a bank and her behavior is characterized by the fundamental attribution error and halo effect. Explain with the help of an example what Hastings' behavior is most likely to be toward her team in such a situation.

Q: What is selective perception?

Q: Compare the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias.

Q: Discuss the attribution theory.

Q: What is perception? Discuss the factors that influence perception.

Q: A focus on utilitarianism creates an environment that hinders productivity and efficiency.

Q: Women are more likely than men to overanalyze problems before making a decision and to rehash a decision once made.

Q: The tendency to believe falsely, after an outcome of an event is actually known, that one would have accurately predicted that outcome is known as the confirmation bias.

Q: Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence it's wrong.

Q: A person's tendency to believe he or she can predict the outcome of random events is known as the self-serving bias.

Q: Anchoring bias occurs because our mind appears to give a disproportionate amount of emphasis to the first information it receives.

Q: Rational decision making is an unconscious process created from distilled experience.

Q: The rational decision-making model takes into consideration the fact that all information pertaining to a problem might not be available to the decision maker.

Q: In an interview, information elicited early from an interviewee carries greater weight than information elicited later.

Q: Stereotyping helps individuals make quick decision through generalizations.

Q: A candidate is likely to receive a more favorable evaluation if preceded by mediocre applicants and a less favorable evaluation if preceded by strong applicants. This is an example of the halo effect.