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Speech
Q:
The tongue and lips use what percent of their maximum forces for speech? A. 10 to 30 B. 10 to 50 C. 50 to 75 D. 80 to 90
Q:
The combined presence of what two symptoms is the strongest confirmatory sign that flaccid dysarthria is the correct diagnosis? A. hypernasality and nasal emission B. hyponasality and monoloudness C. hyponasality and varying volume D. hypernasality and phonatory incompetence
Q:
Surgical treatments options for damage to the vagus nerve are: A. a palatal lift and Teflon injection B. a pharyngeal flap and Botox C. Botox and Teflon injection D. a pharyngeal flap and Teflon injection
Q:
The ___________ branch travels a double back route from the brainstem to the larynx. It branches from the vagus nerve after leaving the cranium and then courses down near the heart before turning upward, traveling up along the trachea, finally reaching the larynx.
Q:
The cranial motor neurons from the accessory nerve help innervate the intrinsic muscles of the velum, pharynx, and ___________.
Q:
The spinal nerves play an important role in speech production because they provide motor innervations for the muscles of ___________.
Q:
___________ is a disease that affects the neuromuscular junction, with the primary symptom being rapid fatigue of muscular contractions over a short time, with recovery occurring after rest.
Q:
What are the six pairs of cranial nerves of speech production? A. trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hypoglossal B. trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, abducens, and hypoglossal C. trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vestibulocochlear, accessory, and hypoglossal D. trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hyperactive
Q:
A prosthetic treatment that is essentially a dental retainer with a rear extension to help push upward on the velum is called a ___________.
Q:
When conducting a motor speech examination, the clinician: A. only needs to evaluate the five components of speech production B. needs to constantly assess the patients muscle strength, speed of movement, range of motion, accuracy of movement, motor steadiness, and muscle tone as well as the five components of speech production C. will need to use the instrumentation method to achieve an accurate diagnosis D. may want to know a little bit about the neuromuscular system
Q:
Regarding the speech motor evaluation, which of the following is TRUE? A. Face and jaw muscles need to be observed during rest only. B. The tongue needs to be observed during movement only. C. The velum and pharynx need to be observed during rest and movement. D. Laryngeal function can be observed directly.
Q:
Which of these tasks will be most difficult for a patient with apraxia of speech? A. counting from 1-20 B. counting backward from 20 to 1 C. counting from 1 to 10 D. repeating CVC words with identical initial and final sounds
Q:
Apraxia is: A. the result of muscle weakness B. the result of reduced range of motion C. due to a cognitive inability to plan the target movement D. disruption in the ability to voluntarily sequence complex movements accurately
Q:
The first portion of a motor speech evaluation is: A. observing the larynx B. using sophisticated equipment C. observing the velum D. obtaining background information and medical history
Q:
Small involuntary movements that may occur in a muscle when motor innervation has been lost through damage to lower motor neurons are called: A. nonrhythmic movements B. fasciculations C. jerkings D. spasms
Q:
Regarding obtaining background information and medical history, which statement is FALSE? A. Information about onset may be gained. B. An accurate prognosis is determined. C. An acute condition may be suggested due to rate of onset. D. Information about the site of lesion may be gathered.
Q:
Two basic methods of evaluating motor speech disorders are instrumentation and ___________.
Q:
In addition to assessing the five components of speech production, the clinician must also constantly assess the patients muscle strength, speed of movement, range of motion, accuracy or movement, motor steadiness, and ___________.
Q:
___________ tasks move the articulators through a single series of rapid back-and-forth movements, such as repeating puh, puh, puh or tuh, tuh, tuh.
Q:
Abductor muscle paralysis that prevents the vocal folds from being abducted completely is called a(n) ___________.
Q:
___________ is a disruption in the sequencing of oral movements that are nonverbal.
Q:
Flaccid dysarthria is: A. a motor speech disorder caused by disruption of the flow of neural impulses along the upper motor neurons B. a motor speech disorder caused by a disruption of the flow of neural impulses along the lower motor neurons C. a motor speech disorder caused by a disruption of the flow of neural impulses along the upper and lower motor neurons D. a cognitive disorder caused by a disruption of the flow of neural impulses along the lower motor neurons
Q:
Flaccid dysarthria affects the muscles of: A. respiration only B. respiration and articulation only C. respiration, phonation, and articulation, but not prosody or resonance D. respiration, phonation, articulation, prosody, and resonance
Q:
The final common pathway refers to: A. upper motor neurons B. lateral motor neurons C. lower and upper motor neurons D. lower motor neurons
Q:
The primary auditory cortex, primary visual cortex, primary sensory cortex, and primary motor cortex comprise the: A. spinal cord B. primary cortex C. cerebrum D. basal ganglia
Q:
The controlled circuits in the basal ganglia and cerebellum link the association cortex with the: A. caudate nucleus B. putamen C. globus pallidus D. primary motor cortex
Q:
Damage resulting in spasticity is often a result of: A. lower motor neuron damage B. lateral motor neuron damage C. upper motor neuron damage D. bilateral lower motor neuron damage
Q:
The central nervous system consists of the brain and ___________.
Q:
The peripheral nervous system is comprised of ___________ pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Q:
In general, sensory neurons are afferent, and motor neurons are ___________.
Q:
The___________ plays an important role in the initial planning of voluntary movements.
Q:
The ___________ is described as the doorway through which subcortical systems of the nervous system communicate with the cerebral cortex.
Q:
When diagnosing motor speech disorders, most clinicians rely on: A. instrumentation B. perceptual analysis C. tuning forks D. sophisticated devices
Q:
What are the five components of speech production? A. respiration, phonation, resonance, articulation, and processing B. respiration, phonation, resistance, articulation, and prosody C. respiration, phonation, resonance, articulation, and prosody D. regurgitation, phonation, resonance, articulation, and prosody
Q:
Dysarthria is: A. a speech language deficit resulting from neuromotor damage to the PNS or CNS, with damage affecting any of the five components of speech production and language B. a psychological disorder masked by speech production deficits resulting from neuromotor damage to the PNS or CNS, with damage affecting any of the five components of speech production C. a speech production deficit resulting from neuromotor damage to the PNS or CNS, with damage affecting one component of speech production D. a speech production deficit resulting from neuromotor damage to the PNS or CNS, with damage affecting any of the five components of speech production
Q:
Apraxia of speech is: A. a motor speech disturbance characterized by a deficit in the ability to smoothly sequence motor commands needed to correctly position the articulators during the voluntary production of phonemes B. a language and motor speech disturbance characterized by word finding problems and a deficit in the ability to smoothly sequence motor commands needed to correctly position the articulators during the voluntary production of phonemes C. a motor speech disturbance characterized by a deficit in the ability to smoothly sequence motor commands needed to correctly position the articulators during involuntary production of phonemes D. a speech production deficit resulting from neuromotor damage to the PNS or CNS, with damage affecting any of the five components of speech production
Q:
Damage to which motor component results in speaking in short phrases, reduced loudness, and a breathy voice quality? A. respiration B. phonation C. resonance D. articulation
Q:
Damage to which motor component results in breathy, harsh quality or strained-strangled quality? A. respiration B. phonation C. resonance D. articulation
Q:
Two important neurotransmitters in the motor system are: A. nerves and tracts B. acetylcholine and dopamine C. CNS and PNS D. synaptic clefts and glial cells
Q:
Damage to which motor component results in a hypernasal quality? A. respiration B. phonation C. resonance D. prosody
Q:
Regarding the manner in which neurons communicate, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. A single neuron may have synaptic connections with the terminal ramifications or collaterals of many different axons. B. A receiving neuron will fire its own electrochemical impulse only when a certain threshold of excitation is reached, and then only if the amounts of excitatory neurotransmitters exceed the influence of inhibitory neurotransmitters. C. A complex interplay of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters is required to convey neural impulses. D. Only a few neurons are involved in the transmission of neural impulses.
Q:
Damage to which motor component results in imprecise consonants, distorted vowels, inappropriate silences, and irregular articulatory breakdowns? A. respiration B. phonation C. articulation D. prosody
Q:
The impaired production of speech because of disturbances in the muscular control of the speech system is called ___________.
Q:
A deficit in the ability to smoothly sequence the speech-producing movements of the tongue, lips, jaw, and other parts of the speech mechanism is called ___________.
Q:
Apraxia of speech primarily affects articulation and ___________.
Q:
Case reports and medical descriptive writing became much more specific in the ___________s, from which time we begin to note numerous descriptors of modern-day motor speech disorders.
Q:
The most complex component and key of the nervous system is the: A. pons B. thorax C. brain D. lateral sulcus
Q:
The brain is divided into the: A. cerebrum, brainstem, and cerebellum B. midbrain, pons, and medulla C. CNS and PNS D. gyri and sulci
Q:
Higher cognitive activities, such as language, motor planning, problem solving, and sensory perception are performed in the: A. central gyrus B. primary motor cortex C. postcentral gyrus D. cerebral cortex
Q:
Cranial nerves are attached to the brainstem at points called: A. cranial nerve nuclei B. midbrain C. pons D. medulla
Q:
What is the most important function of the cerebellum? A. It houses the cranial nerve nuclei. B. It coordinates voluntary movements, contracting muscles with correct force and at appropriate times. C. It houses the four lobes of the brain. D. It performs higher cognitive activities.
Q:
What do dendrites do? A. They conduct neural impulses away from the cell body and transfer the impulses to muscles, glands, or other neurons. B. They receive electrochemical impulses from other neurons or from sensory organs. C. They allow one axon to communicate with many additional neurons. D. They cover the length of axons.
Q:
The three primary components of neurons are: A. dendrites, axons, and myelin B. motor neurons, sensory neurons, and interneurons C. efferent neurons, afferent neurons, and effective neurons D. cell body, dendrites, and axons
Q:
Regarding neurons, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. Interneurons play an important role in controlling movement. B. Sensory neurons carry sensory information. C. All neurons have cell bodies of a relatively similar size. D. Motor neurons cause movement.
Q:
What are the most important cells of the nervous system? A. neurons B. glial cells C. Schwann cells D. microglia
Q:
Bundles of axons as found in the CNS are often called: A. tracts B. tracks C. bundles D. nerves
Q:
One long-lasting theory of human reasoning was that reasoning was housed in the four cerebral ventricles. Two lateral ventricles were believed to be where the body received sensory information from the outside world, with the information then moving to the third ventricle, which contained intellect. Intellect was believed to analyze the information and extract meaning from the sensory system. The fourth ventricle was believed to be responsible for ___________.
Q:
Motor speech disorders consist of: A. six types of dysarthria and one type of apraxia B. six types of dysarthria and two types of apraxia C. five types of dysarthria and one type of apraxia D. seven types of dysarthria and one type of apraxia
Q:
A disordered utterance literally means: A. apraxia B. dysarthria C. dysphasia D. dysphonia
Q:
Without action literally means: A. apraxia B. dysarthria C. dysphasia D. dysphonia
Q:
Why is it important to study the historical perspective of motor speech disorders? A. It is good entertainment. B. It gives us the ability to be critical of the work of ancient writers. C. It adds a sense of depth and continuity. D. It is important for science.
Q:
What was gleaned about the medical writers from studying the historical accounts of the disorders? A. They were correct about most details. B. They were modern in their analytical approach to medicine. C. They were unprofessional and unethical. D. They were very unreasonable.
Q:
Some of the earliest accounts of ancient Greeks were found in what document? A. the Hippocratic Corpus B. the ancient book of speech language pathology C. the Hearst Papyrus D. a habeas corpus
Q:
It is believed that the Hippocratic Corpus was written by: A. Hippocrates B. Aristotle C. Hippocrates and one other ancient Greek physician D. numerous writers
Q:
According to the historical accounts of the ancient Greeks, which of the following statements is FALSE? A. The ancient Greeks understood that speech difficulties could result from physical injury. B. The ancient Greeks understood that speechlessness could be caused by injury to the head. C. The ancient Greeks had a modern-day understanding of how voice, speech, and language differ. D. Early descriptions of speech language disorders did not end with the Greeks.
Q:
Prior to the theory that reasoning was housed in the four cerebral ventricles, it was believed that the centers for speech and emotion were placed in the: A. heart B. lungs C. left hemisphere D. ear
Q:
Which famous artist believed in the theory of ventricular localization and depicted it in his paintings? A. Michelangelo B. Raphael C. Donatello D. Leonardo da Vinci
Q:
During the Middle Ages and Renaissance, one theory of human reasoning stated that the senses and movement were controlled by the: A. extremities B. inner ear C. medulla D. meninges
Q:
Who was the first to be credited for clearly describing apraxia? A. Chomsky B. Liepmann C. Hippocrates D. Wernicke
Q:
What type of apraxia did Liepmann describe the most in his report? A. Nonverbal oral apraxia B. Limb apraxia C. Oral apraxia D. Aphasia
Q:
Of which type of apraxia did Wernicke describe characteristics? A. Nonverbal oral apraxia B. Limb apraxia C. Oral apraxia D. Aphasia
Q:
Who introduced a more standardized method of naming and classifying motor speech disorders, as well as provided an invaluable listing of speech errors that occur in motor speech disorders? A. Darley B. Wernicke C. Freed D. Aronson
Q:
When presenting an award, it is important to call the person receiving the award to come up and join you at the start of your speech, so they can stand next to you while you deliver it.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Because special speaking situations normally happen in front of your friends and family, you dont have to consider them as a public.
a. True
b. False
Q:
PechaKucha speeches require a specific format that includes 20 slides shown for 20 seconds each. a. True b. False
Q:
Special speaking situations often have specific requirements established by tradition. a. True b. False
Q:
Which of the following are the primary goals of a speech for introducing another speaker?
a. to boost the speakers ethos
b. to demonstrate why the speaker is qualified to speak on a topic
c. to create a humorous atmosphere by using jokes
d. both to boost the speakers ethos and to demonstrate why the speaker is qualified to speak on a topic
e. none of these choices
Q:
The rules of TED Talks include all of the following except_____________.
a. Thou Shalt Reveal Thy Curiosity and Thy Passion
b. Thou Shalt Tell a Story
c. Thou Shalt Read Thy Speak
d. Thou Shalt Not Steal the Time of Those Who Follow Thee.
Q:
When using tradition to guide the content of a special speaking situation, it is the speakers responsibility to __________. a. make sure they are using the constraints that tradition dictates appropriately b. find a way to make the speech fresh and new despite the tradition c. stick with tradition and not deviate d. both make sure they are using the constraints that tradition dictates appropriately and find a way to make the speech fresh and new despite the tradition e. none of these choices
Q:
An occasional speech __________. a. happens very rarely b. has special constraints because of expectations about life transitions c. is identical to informative and persuasive speeches, except for where it is presented d. all of these choices e. none of these choices